Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2011 / ia / Paper 1 / 11E (Analysis I)

For the first additional construction, modify the rational/irrational example toAt zero, $|g(h)/h|=|h|\to 0$, so $g^{\prime }(0)=0$. At any nonzero point, density of the rational numbers and density of the irrational numbers give incompatible limiting values $x^2$ and $-x^2$. Thus $g$ is discontinuous, and hence not differentiable, there. Its differentiability set is exactly $\{0\}$.

For the second construction, use a summable absolute-value cusp series:On $[-R,R]$, each summand is bounded by $2^{-n}(R+1/2)$. The Weierstrass M-test therefore gives uniform convergence on every bounded interval, and the uniform limit theorem makes $G$ continuous everywhere.

To justify differentiability, each summand's difference quotient has absolute value at most $2^{-n}$, by the reverse triangle inequality. The sum of these bounds is finite, uniformly in the increment. Thus the tail of the difference quotient is uniformly small, and limits may be passed through the sum by first retaining finitely many terms and then making the tail small. If $x\ne 1/n$ for every $n\ge 2$, each individual summand is differentiable, givingIn particular $G^{\prime }(0)=-{\sum }_{n=2}^{\infty }{2}^{-n}=-1/2$. The accumulation of cusp locations at zero does not destroy the derivative, because their weights are summable.

At $x=1/m$, the same tail argument applies to both one-sided derivatives. Every term except the $m$th has the same derivative from both sides; the $m$th has derivatives $-2^{-m}$ and $2^{-m}$. ConsequentlyTherefore $G$ fails to be differentiable exactly at $1/2,1/3,1/4,\dots$, and is differentiable everywhere else.

At zero, $|f(x)-f(0)|=|x|\to 0$, so the function is continuous. At a nonzero $x_0$, approach along rational and irrational sequences; density of the rational numbers and density of the irrational numbers give limiting values $x_0$ and $-x_0$, which are different. Thus the continuity set is $\boxed{\{0\}}$.

At zero, the difference quotient is one for rational nonzero increments and minus one for irrational increments, so the derivative does not exist. Elsewhere differentiability implies continuity, and continuity already fails. Thus the differentiability set is $\boxed{\varnothing }$.

Away from zero, the product and composition of the displayed smooth functions are continuous and differentiable. At zero,so $f$ remains continuous. Hence the continuity set is $\boxed{\mathbb{R}}$.

The difference quotient at zero is $f(h)/h=\sin (1/h)$. For $h_n=(\pi /2+2\pi n{)}^{-1}$ it equals one, and for $k_n=(3\pi /2+2\pi n{)}^{-1}$ it equals minus one. Both sequences tend to zero, so no derivative exists there. For $x\ne 0$, the product rule and chain rule giveThus the differentiability set is $\boxed{\mathbb{R}\setminus \{0\}}$.