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Normalize the riskless financial asset to $B_0=1$, $B_1=b>0$, and write $S_0,S_1$ for the $s$ risky asset prices. Their discounted gain random vector is $Y=S_1/b-S_0$. A zero-cost portfolio holding $h\in {\mathbb{R}}^s$ in the risky assets and $-h\cdot S_0$ in the riskless asset has terminal value $bh\cdot Y$. Thus an arbitrage meansAn equivalent martingale measure is a probability measure $Q$ with the same null sets as $P$, under which $Y$ is integrable and ${\mathbb{E}}_{Q}Y=0$. The discounted risky prices are then martingales over the single trading period.

If such $Q$ exists, a nonnegative terminal gain has expectation zero under $Q$. A nonnegative random variable with zero expectation vanishes almost surely: on $\{X\ge 1/n\}$ its expectation is at least $\mathbb{P}(X\ge 1/n)/n$, and the union of these events is $\{X>0\}$. Equivalence transfers this conclusion to $P$, excluding arbitrage.

For the converse we prove the needed positive-density separation proof of the one-period asset-pricing theorem. First make the gain integrable without changing its null sets. Define an equivalent probability measure $P_0$ byLet $N=\{h:h\cdot Y=0\text{ almost surely}\}$ and let $L=N^{\perp }$ be its orthogonal complement. Taking a finite basis of $N$ shows $Y\in L$ almost surely. If $L=\{0\}$, the gain is zero and $P_0$ already gives the required measure. Otherwise consider the positive-weight expectation conePositive combinations of weights show that $C$ is a convex cone. It is open relative to $L$. Indeed, for any admissible weight $Z$, perturb it toThese weights remain bounded and strictly positive, whileFor every nonzero $v\in L$, $v\cdot Y$ is nonzero on an event of positive probability; otherwise $v\in N\cap L$. ConsequentlyThe matrix is finite because $\Vert Y{\Vert }^2/(1+\Vert Y\Vert )\le \Vert Y\Vert$. The kernel of $A_Z$ on $L$ is zero, so it defines an invertible matrix on the finite-dimensional vector space $L$. For any sufficiently small $\delta >0$, every $y$ with $\Vert y\Vert <\delta /\Vert A_Z^{-1}\Vert$ is the image of a vector in the radius-$\delta$ ball, since $\Vert A_Z^{-1}y\Vert <\delta$. Hence the perturbations give a neighborhood of zero, proving relative openness of $C$.

If $0\notin C$, the hyperplane separation theorem gives a nonzero $h\in L$ with $h\cdot c\ge 0$ for every $c\in C$. The separating constant can be taken to be zero because $C$ is a cone. Put $A=\{h\cdot Y<0\}$ and use the strictly positive weights $Z=1_A+\epsilon$. Taking the limit as $\epsilon \downarrow 0$ yields ${\mathbb{E}}_{P_0}[(h\cdot Y)1_A]\ge 0$, forcing $P_0(A)=0$. But $h\notin N$, so $P_0(h\cdot Y>0)>0$. This is an arbitrage, a contradiction. Hence $0\in C$: some bounded strictly positive $Z$ satisfies ${\mathbb{E}}_{P_0}[ZY]=0$. Normalize it by $dQ/d{P}_0=Z/{\mathbb{E}}_{P_0}Z$. This gives an equivalent martingale measure with integrable gains, establishing the fundamental theorem of asset pricing here without any further existence theorem.

Now retain only the $m$ positive-probability states of the finite probability space. Let $V\subseteq {\mathbb{R}}^m$ be the linear span of the discounted terminal asset payoffs; it contains the constant vector $1$. A complete market means $V={\mathbb{R}}^m$. An equivalent martingale measure is a vector $q$ of strictly positive state probabilities whose pairing with each asset payoff gives its initial price. By linearity it prices every attainable payoff. If $V={\mathbb{R}}^m$, the indicator functions of individual states are attainable, so these prices determine every $q_j$ uniquely.

If $V$ is proper, choose $0\ne v\in V^{\perp }$. Since $1\in V$, ${\sum }_j{v}_j=0$. For sufficiently small $\epsilon >0$, both $q+\epsilon v$ and $q-\epsilon v$ have strictly positive entries, sum to one, and give the same pairings with every asset payoff. They are distinct equivalent martingale measures. Therefore market completeness is equivalent to uniqueness of the equivalent martingale measure.

For an integrable finite-dimensional random vector $Y$, let $L=\{h:h\cdot Y=0\text{ almost surely}{\}}^{\perp }$. The displayed convex cone is open relative to $L$. Given a bounded strictly positive $Z$, the perturbation $Z_{\epsilon }=Z(1+\epsilon \cdot Y/(1+\Vert Y\Vert ))$, $\Vert \epsilon \Vert <1$, changes its weighted expectation by $A_Z\epsilon$, whereFor $0\ne v\in L$, $v^T{A}_{Z}v>0$: otherwise $v\cdot Y=0$ almost surely. Thus $A_Z$ is invertible on $L$, and these perturbations give a neighborhood of every point of the cone. The hyperplane separation theorem consequently gives the alternative: either zero is a strictly positively weighted expectation, or a nonzero direction in $L$ has a nonnegative dot product with $Y$ almost surely and a positive dot product with positive probability. To obtain the latter assertion, test the separating direction with $Z=1_{\{h\cdot Y<0\}}+\epsilon$ and let $\epsilon \downarrow 0$.