Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2017 / ib / Paper 1 / 7H / b / Solution

Since $\mathbb{P}(X_1=0)=e^{-\lambda }$, the indicator $Y$ is an unbiased estimator of $\theta$. The joint probability mass function isThe Fisher-Neyman factorization theorem therefore makes $T={\sum }_i{X}_i$ a sufficient statistic. More explicitly, conditioning on $T=t$ gives a multinomial distribution with $t$ trials and cell probabilities $1/n$, so $X_1\mid T=t$ has the binomial distribution $\mathrm{Bin}(t,1/n)$. Consequently conditioning by the Rao-Blackwell theorem givesFor $n=1$, interpret the value at $T=0$ as $1$ and at $T>0$ as $0$; thus the same expression uses $0^0=1$ in this probability convention. For $\lambda =0$ all observations and $T$ are zero almost surely. For $n>1$ and $\lambda >0$, the reduction in variance is strict: given $T=1$, the event $X_1=0$ still has a nondegenerate conditional probability. Directly, using the probability generating function of $T\sim \mathrm{Poisson}(n\lambda )$, the new variance is $e^{-2\lambda }(e^{\lambda /n}-1)$.