Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Oxford / 2023 / Prelims / Mathematics II / 7 / b / ii / Solution

Take $f_n(x)=x^n$ on $[0,1]$. Each function is continuous, and the pointwise limit is $f(x)=0$ for $0\le x<1$, while $f(1)=1$. NeverthelessThe limiting function is Riemann integrable, since changing a value at one point does not change its Riemann integral. There is no uniform convergence: for every $n$, ${\sup }_{[0,1]}|f_n-f|=1$, with the supremum approached as $x\uparrow 1$ from below. Equivalently, the uniform limit theorem would require the limit to be continuous.