Past exam of the probability, measure and martingales course of the University of Oxford / 2023 / 1 / c

The first entrance time ${\tau }_K$ is a stopping time, because $\{{\tau }_K\le n\}={\bigcup }_{j=0}^n\{M_j\le -K\}\in {\mathcal{F}}_n$. Before this time $M_n>-K$; at entrance, the bounded increments give $M_{{\tau }_K}>-K-L$. Thus the stopped martingaleis a nonnegative martingale. Here the stopped process is a martingale since its increment is $1_{\{{\tau }_K>n\}}(M_{n+1}-M_n)$, whose conditional expectation given ${\mathcal{F}}_n$ is zero.

The martingale convergence theorem states that a nonnegative martingale converges almost surely to a finite integrable random variable; indeed its expectations are constant, giving the required bound in the L1 norm. Apply this theorem to $(N_n)$. On $\{{\tau }_K=\infty \}$ the stopped process equals the original one at every time. HenceThe overshoot bound is why the assumption of bounded increments matters.

Apply part (i) for every positive integer $K$ and discard the countable union of its exceptional null sets. A sample path bounded below never reaches $-K$ for some such $K$, and must therefore converge to a finite limit of a sequence.

Apply the same argument to the martingale $(-M_n)$. Outside one more null set, every sample path bounded above also converges finitely. Thus a sample path which does not converge finitely must be unbounded in both directions. Each finite initial segment has finite values, so removing any such segment preserves unboundedness. It follows that the limit superior is $+\infty$ and the limit inferior is $-\infty$. ConsequentlyThis proves the bounded-increment martingale convergence-or-oscillation dichotomy; in particular one-sided divergence to infinity is impossible with positive probability.