Sample mean under simple random sampling ($\mathrm{Var}({\bar{y}}_A)=(1-n/N)S^2/n$)

Fix $N>1$ real population values $y_1,\dots ,y_N$. Define the finite population mean and two normalizations of the finite population variance byThe values are fixed; only the selected subset $A$ is random. For its sample mean ${\bar{y}}_A=n^{-1}{\sum }_{i\in A}{y}_i$, the exact design expectation and variance areThe sample mean is an unbiased estimator of the finite population mean. At $n=N$, every unit is observed and ${\bar{y}}_A=\bar{Y}$ exactly, so the variance is zero. The $N=1$ case is deterministic and is handled directly, since $S^2$ is undefined then.^[ref]

The finite population correction depends on the baseline. With the $N-1$ normalization it is $1-n/N$ multiplying $S^2/n$. With the $N$ normalization it is $(N-n)/(N-1)$ multiplying ${\sigma }_N^2/n$, the exact variance for independent uniform sampling with replacement. The standard error uses the square root of the relevant variance factor. Mixing the two normalizations gives a wrong answer even at $n=1$, when replacement cannot matter. For the six-value example, $\bar{Y}=7$, ${\sum }_i(y_i-7{)}^2=70$, $S^2=14$ and ${\sigma }_N^2=35/3$, reproducing $14/3$ without replacement and $35/6$ with replacement.

A short proof exposes the statistical dependence. Let $X_r$ be the value at position $r$ in uniform sequential sampling without replacement, so each $X_r$ has expected value $\bar{Y}$ and variance ${\sigma }_N^2$. Write $d_i=y_i-\bar{Y}$. Every ordered pair of distinct labels is equally likely, and ${\sum }_i{d}_i=0$, hence for $r\ne s$,Linearity of expectation proves unbiasedness without requiring independence. The variance of a sum includes all $n(n-1)$ ordered covariance terms, givingFor the original population, each pair of distinct draw positions has covariance $-7/3$. Drawing a high value leaves a lower mean among the remaining values, balancing subsequent draws. Equal marginal probability distributions therefore coexist with negative covariance.

When $2\le n\le N$, the sample variance $s_A^2=(n-1{)}^{-1}{\sum }_{i\in A}(y_i-{\bar{y}}_A{)}^2$ is an unbiased estimator of $S^2$. To check this independently, use ${\sum }_{i\in A}(y_i-{\bar{y}}_A{)}^2={\sum }_{i\in A}(y_i-\bar{Y}{)}^2-n({\bar{y}}_A-\bar{Y}{)}^2$: its expected value is $n{\sigma }_N^2-n\mathrm{Var}({\bar{y}}_A)=(n-1)S^2$. Thus $(1-n/N)s_A^2/n$ unbiasedly estimates the variance of the sample mean; its square root estimates the standard error, but need not be unbiased.^[ref]

The diagram compares variance with the expected fraction of distinct population labels observed. Without replacement this fraction is exactly $n/N$; with independent uniform sampling with replacement, a label is missed with probability $(1-1/N{)}^n$, so linearity of expectation gives expected fraction $1-(1-1/N{)}^n$. At six draws, replacement covers only about $66.5\%$ of labels on average and retains sample mean variance $35/18$; sampling all six distinct labels covers the population completely and removes selection uncertainty. This population coverage is distinct from confidence interval coverage probability.

The correction matters when the sampling fraction is appreciable. It calibrates uncertainty about this fixed population under the specified selection mechanism. It does not correct unequal selection weights, missing observations or measurement errors; observing every label also does not eliminate uncertainty about a larger unobserved population. Moreover, an exact variance alone does not guarantee the coverage probability of a proposed confidence interval: a small discrete sampling distribution can make a normal approximation inaccurate.

The sampling fraction is the sample size divided by the finite population size. In simple random sampling, it determines how much the finite population correction reduces the variance relative to $S^2/n$.