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False, with “disjoint union” understood as a topological disjoint union. Take the rational numbers $\mathbb{Q}$ with the usual subspace topology from the real line.

Every connected subset of $\mathbb{Q}$ has at most one point. Indeed, if it contained $r<s$, choose an irrational number $t\in (r,s)$. The two relatively open setspartition $\mathbb{Q}$ and separate any subset containing both $r$ and $s$. Hence the connected components of $\mathbb{Q}$ are singletons.

If a topological disjoint union of nonempty connected spaces were homeomorphic to $\mathbb{Q}$, the image of each summand would be connected, hence a singleton. Every summand would therefore be a one-point topological space. Their topological disjoint union is a discrete space, since each summand is open. But $\mathbb{Q}$ is not a discrete space: for each $r\in \mathbb{Q}$, the distinct rational numbers $r+1/n$ approach $r$, so $r$ is not an isolated point. This is a contradiction. The set decomposition into connected components always exists; giving those pieces the topological disjoint union topology need not recover the original topology.

Write $Z={\coprod }_{n\in \mathbb{N}}{X}_n$, where each $X_n$ is a labelled copy of the topological space $X$, with its topological disjoint union topology. Define the bijectionFor a subset $U\subseteq \mathbb{N}\times X$, let $U_n=\{x\in X:(n,x)\in U\}$. By definition of the topological disjoint union, $F^{-1}(U)$ is open in $Z$ exactly when each $U_n$ is open in $X$.

The same condition characterizes open sets in the product topology on $\mathbb{N}\times X$. If $U$ is open, the map $x\mapsto (n,x)$ is continuous, so each $U_n$ is open. Conversely, if each $U_n$ is open, thenis open, since the discrete topology makes every $\{n\}$ open in $\mathbb{N}$. Hence $F$ and its inverse function are continuous, proving the required homeomorphism. This also covers the case $X=\varnothing$.