Quantum numbers appear directly in the Schrödinger equation solution for the hydrogen atom.

However, it very cool that they are actually discovered before the Schrödinger equation, and are present in the Bohr model (principal quantum number) and the Bohr-Sommerfeld model (azimuthal quantum number and magnetic quantum number) of the atom. This must be because they observed direct effects of those numbers in some experiments. TODO which experiments.

E.g. The Quantum Story by Jim Baggott (2011) page 34 mentions:This refers to forbidden mechanism. TODO concrete example, ideally the first one to be noticed. How can you notice this if the energy depends only on the principal quantum number?

Determines energy. This comes out directly from the resolution of the Schrödinger equation solution for the hydrogen atom where we have to set some arbitrary values of energy by separation of variables just like we have to set some arbitrary numbers when solving partial differential equations with the Fourier series. We then just happen to see that only certain integer values are possible to satisfy the equations.

Fixed total angular momentum.

The direction however is not specified by this number.

To determine the quantum angular momentum, we need the magnetic quantum number, which then selects which orbital exactly we are talking about.

Fixed quantum angular momentum in a given direction.

Can range between $\pm l$.

E.g. consider gallium which is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p1:

The z component of the quantum angular momentum is simply:so e.g. again for gallium:

Note that this direction is arbitrary, since for a fixed azimuthal quantum number (and therefore fixed total angular momentum), we can only know one direction for sure. $z$ is normally used by convention.

This notation is cool as it gives the spin quantum number, which is important e.g. when talking about hyperfine structure.

But it is a bit crap that the spin is not given simply as $\pm 1/2$ but rather mixes up both the azimuthal quantum number and spin. What is the reason?

Bibliography:

Cirists,

TODO. Can't find it easily. Anyone?

This is closely linked to the Pauli exclusion principle.

What does a particle even mean, right? Especially in quantum field theory, where two electrons are just vibrations of a single electron field.

Another issue is that if we consider magnetism, things only make sense if we add special relativity, since Maxwell's equations require special relativity, so a non approximate solution for this will necessarily require full quantum electrodynamics.

As mentioned at lecture 1 youtube.com/watch?video=H3AFzbrqH68&t=555, relativistic quantum mechanical theories like the Dirac equation and Klein-Gordon equation make no sense for a "single particle": they must imply that particles can pop in out of existence.

Bibliography:

Just ignore the electron electron interactions.

Bibliography:

No closed form solution, but good approximation that can be calculated by hand with the Hartree-Fock method, see hartree-Fock method for the helium atom.

Bibliography:

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