Past exam of the differential equations 2 course of the University of Oxford / 2023 / 2

Put $N=n(n+1)$. After division by $1-x^2$, the Legendre differential equation has coefficientsBoth are analytic functions at zero, so $\boxed{x=0\text{ is an ordinary point}}$. At either $x_0=\pm 1$, $p$ has a genuine simple pole; hence these are singular points even when $n=0$ makes $q$ vanish. However,and both products extend analytically across $x_0$. By the regular singular point criterion for a second-order equation,None of the three specified points is an irregular singular point.

Use $t=x+1$. The Legendre differential equation becomesSubstituting a Frobenius series $y=t^r{\sum }_{k\ge 0}{a}_k{t}^k$, $a_0\ne 0$, gives the indicial equation $2r^2=0$: the indicial root zero is repeated. For $r=0$, the coefficient of $t^k$ yieldsorFor $0\le k<n$ the multiplying factor is nonzero. At $k=n$ it vanishes, so $a_{n+1}$ and all later coefficients are zero. Thus one solution is a polynomial of exact polynomial degree $n$, including a nonzero constant when $n=0$. Denote a chosen normalization by $P_n$.

The linear recurrence relation determines every analytic coefficient from $a_0$, so there cannot be a second independent analytic solution at $t=0$. To see the required logarithm explicitly, reduction of order gives the second solution locally asNear $t=0$, the integrand is $1/(2a_0^{2}t)$ plus an analytic function. After rescaling the second solution, its form is thereforeThe analytic remainder converges locally; its constant term may be set to zero by adding a multiple of $P_n$. The nonzero logarithmic coefficient makes $y_2$ linearly independent of $P_n$. This Frobenius expansion of the Legendre equation at an endpoint gives a Logarithmic Frobenius solution; the same endpoint calculation at $x=1$ explains why the independent Legendre function of the second kind is excluded when boundedness at both ends is required.

Write the operator in divergence form:The Legendre differential equation therefore givesThese are the eigenvalues of $\mathcal{L}$. With the common positive-sign convention for a Sturm-Liouville problem, use $-\mathcal{L}$ instead:This is a singular Sturm-Liouville problem, because $p$ vanishes at the endpoints. Bounded eigenfunctions select the nonlogarithmic branches and satisfy $p{P}_n^{\prime }\to 0$ there. The Lagrange identity for a Sturm-Liouville operator givesThe eigenvalues are distinct, proving the orthogonality conditionThe weight is one. No choice of normalization of the Legendre polynomials is needed for this conclusion.

First take the usual endpoint-regular interpretation $f\in C([-1,1])$. Integrating the divergence form shows that $F=(1-x^2)y^{\prime }$ has finite endpoint limits. A nonzero limit would make $y^{\prime }$ proportional to $1/(1\mp x)$ near that endpoint, forcing a logarithmically unbounded $y$. Thus boundedness requires $F(-1)=F(1)=0$, and consequentlyThis is orthogonality to the constant eigenfunction $P_0$, hence the Fredholm alternative condition. It is also sufficient under the stated endpoint regularity: putIf $M=\max |f|$, the zero-mean condition gives $|F(s)|\le M\min (1+s,1-s)$. Hence the last integrand is bounded, so $y$ extends continuously to both endpoints. Any two bounded solutions differ by a constant: their difference solves $((1-x^2)z^{\prime }{)}^{\prime }=0$, whose other solution is $\frac{1}{2}\log ((1+x)/(1-x))$.

For the requested eigenfunction expansion, setThe Legendre polynomials span all polynomials, so their completeness follows from the Weierstrass approximation theorem. Projecting $\mathcal{L}y=f$ onto each eigenfunction gives $-k(k+1)y_k=f_k$ for $k\ge 1$. The zero mode is free, while $f_0=0$. Thus the full family isThe formula is unchanged by rescaling any $P_k$. For the usual normalization $P_k(1)=1$, the facts $|P_k(x)|\le 1$ on $[-1,1]$ and $N_k=2/(2k+1)$, together with the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, bound each summand by a constant times $k^{-3/2}$. The series therefore converges absolutely and uniformly. Its identification with the preceding integral solution avoids unjustified termwise second differentiation.

There is a source ambiguity: continuity only on $(-1,1)$ does not supply the endpoint control used above. Even for integrable forcing, zero mean alone is insufficient. For example, letThis $f$ is continuous in the interior, absolutely integrable, and has zero mean because $F(\pm 1)=0$. Yet every candidate with zero endpoint values of $(1-x^2)y^{\prime }$ haswhose integral diverges logarithmically in $H$ at each endpoint. Thus no bounded solution exists. For a merely interior-continuous $f$, the exact criterion is that some constant $B$ makesbounded as $x$ approaches both endpoints. The Bounded solvability for the Legendre operator criterion above covers the intended regular forcing and makes this endpoint limitation explicit.

When $n=0$, the forcing has nonzero integral ${\int }_{-1}^{1}1dx=2$, violating the Fredholm alternative condition. There is no bounded solution. Directly, integration gives $(1-x^2)y^{\prime }=x+B$; cancellation of its logarithmic divergence at $x=-1$ requires $B=1$, while cancellation at $x=1$ requires $B=-1$.

For $n\ge 1$, the constant $1/[n(n+1)]$ is a particular solution. Subtract it from any solution. The remainder satisfies the Legendre differential equation, whose general solution is a combination of $P_n$ and the logarithmically unbounded Legendre function of the second kind. Boundedness removes the latter coefficient, givingThe constant forcing is orthogonal to $P_n$ for $n\ge 1$, consistently with Orthogonality of Legendre polynomials and the Fredholm alternative.