Past exam of the differential equations 2 course of the University of Oxford / 2023 / 2 / b

Write the operator in divergence form:The Legendre differential equation therefore givesThese are the eigenvalues of $\mathcal{L}$. With the common positive-sign convention for a Sturm-Liouville problem, use $-\mathcal{L}$ instead:This is a singular Sturm-Liouville problem, because $p$ vanishes at the endpoints. Bounded eigenfunctions select the nonlogarithmic branches and satisfy $p{P}_n^{\prime }\to 0$ there. The Lagrange identity for a Sturm-Liouville operator givesThe eigenvalues are distinct, proving the orthogonality conditionThe weight is one. No choice of normalization of the Legendre polynomials is needed for this conclusion.

First take the usual endpoint-regular interpretation $f\in C([-1,1])$. Integrating the divergence form shows that $F=(1-x^2)y^{\prime }$ has finite endpoint limits. A nonzero limit would make $y^{\prime }$ proportional to $1/(1\mp x)$ near that endpoint, forcing a logarithmically unbounded $y$. Thus boundedness requires $F(-1)=F(1)=0$, and consequentlyThis is orthogonality to the constant eigenfunction $P_0$, hence the Fredholm alternative condition. It is also sufficient under the stated endpoint regularity: putIf $M=\max |f|$, the zero-mean condition gives $|F(s)|\le M\min (1+s,1-s)$. Hence the last integrand is bounded, so $y$ extends continuously to both endpoints. Any two bounded solutions differ by a constant: their difference solves $((1-x^2)z^{\prime }{)}^{\prime }=0$, whose other solution is $\frac{1}{2}\log ((1+x)/(1-x))$.

For the requested eigenfunction expansion, setThe Legendre polynomials span all polynomials, so their completeness follows from the Weierstrass approximation theorem. Projecting $\mathcal{L}y=f$ onto each eigenfunction gives $-k(k+1)y_k=f_k$ for $k\ge 1$. The zero mode is free, while $f_0=0$. Thus the full family isThe formula is unchanged by rescaling any $P_k$. For the usual normalization $P_k(1)=1$, the facts $|P_k(x)|\le 1$ on $[-1,1]$ and $N_k=2/(2k+1)$, together with the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, bound each summand by a constant times $k^{-3/2}$. The series therefore converges absolutely and uniformly. Its identification with the preceding integral solution avoids unjustified termwise second differentiation.

There is a source ambiguity: continuity only on $(-1,1)$ does not supply the endpoint control used above. Even for integrable forcing, zero mean alone is insufficient. For example, letThis $f$ is continuous in the interior, absolutely integrable, and has zero mean because $F(\pm 1)=0$. Yet every candidate with zero endpoint values of $(1-x^2)y^{\prime }$ haswhose integral diverges logarithmically in $H$ at each endpoint. Thus no bounded solution exists. For a merely interior-continuous $f$, the exact criterion is that some constant $B$ makesbounded as $x$ approaches both endpoints. The Bounded solvability for the Legendre operator criterion above covers the intended regular forcing and makes this endpoint limitation explicit.