Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2014 / iii / Paper 45 (The Standard Model)

Use the metric $g^{\mu \nu }=\mathrm{diag}(1,-1,-1,-1)$ and the usual Dirac basis, with $({\gamma }^0{)}^{†}={\gamma }^0$ and $({\gamma }^i{)}^{†}=-{\gamma }^i$. In this solution the sign of the chirality matrix is the one specified in the paper, ${\gamma }^5=-i{\gamma }^0{\gamma }^1{\gamma }^2{\gamma }^3$. Define $t_0=1$ and $t_i=-1$, with no summation in componentwise transformation formulas.

Complex conjugation changes the explicit $-i$ to $+i$. Three spatial gamma matrices each contribute another minus sign, soAlso $({\gamma }^5{)}^2=1$ and $\{{\gamma }^5,{\gamma }^{\mu }\}=0$ by the Clifford algebra.

The quantum time-reversal operator is antiunitary: it conjugates numerical coefficients, including the Dirac spinors and plane-wave exponentials in the mode expansion of a Dirac field. To fix the spin phase explicitly, put ${ϵ}_s=(-1{)}^{1/2-s}$ and useThis convention gives ${\hat{T}}^2=-1$ on a one-fermion state, since ${ϵ}_s{ϵ}_{-s}=-1$. In the transformed expansion, change variables from $(p,s)$ to $(p_T,-s)$. The Lorentz-invariant phase-space measure is unchanged, and $p_T\cdot x=-p\cdot x_T$. The coefficient of $b^s(p)e^{-ip\cdot x_T}$ is thereforeThe same calculation applies to the antiparticle coefficient. Thus, with this explicitly fixed spin convention,The spin phase in the Dirac time-reversal matrix matters here: a common change of the one-particle time-reversal phase replaces $B$ by $-B$; the phase-independent relation is $B\propto {\gamma }^{5}C$. It changes neither the defining conjugation property nor any bilinear result below. Normalize $B$ to be a unitary matrix. In the Dirac basis, ${\gamma }^0$ is real and commutes with $B$, so transforming the Dirac adjoint givesHere complex conjugation of the matrix defining the Dirac adjoint is essential. An explicit realization consistent with the sign of ${\gamma }^5$ used here is $C=i{\gamma }^2{\gamma }^0$ and $B={\gamma }^1{\gamma }^3$; it has $B^{-1}=-B$, so conjugation by $B$ and by $B^{-1}$ coincides. The usual changes of Dirac spinor basis by unitary matrices carry the adjoint and time-reversal matrix with them.

For the charge-conjugation matrix, the gamma matrix adjoint and transpose identities give ${\gamma }^{\mu T}=t_{\mu }{\gamma }^{\mu \ast }$. Consequently $B{\gamma }^{\mu T}{B}^{-1}={\gamma }^{\mu }$. Since $C={\gamma }^{5}B$ in the chosen phase convention,This proof uses a temporal Hermitian matrix and spatial skew-Hermitian matrices explicitly; the transpose identity is preserved when $C$ is transformed appropriately with the gamma matrices.

For the Fermi interaction, let $V_{pn}^{\mu }=\bar{p}{\gamma }^{\mu }n$ and $A_{pn}^{\mu }=\bar{p}{\gamma }^{\mu }{\gamma }^{5}n$. In the displayed Dirac basis, the inverse version of the conjugation relation also holds. Antiunitarity, $B^{-1}{\gamma }^{\mu \ast }B=t_{\mu }{\gamma }^{\mu }$ and $B^{-1}{\gamma }^{5\ast }B={\gamma }^5$ giveThe leptonic weak charged current has the same component signs. In the contraction of leptonic and hadronic currents, the two $t_{\mu }$ factors cancel. Its two independent operators thus keep their form while their coefficients become $g_V^{\ast }$ and $g_A^{\ast }$. The Hermitian-conjugate term transforms separately; its presence does not remove a relative complex phase between the vector and axial couplings.

With all intrinsic phases fixed to one and a real positive Fermi constant, invariance requires real coefficients in that convention. A common phase of $g_V$ and $g_A$ can instead be absorbed into a rephasing of the nucleon fields, and hence into their intrinsic time-reversal phases. The convention-independent condition, for $g_V\ne 0$, isThis is the relative weak phase condition for time reversal. If one coefficient vanishes, there is no relative phase to constrain; the remaining common phase can be removed. A nonreal ratio violates time-reversal symmetry even though the Lagrangian density includes its Hermitian conjugate.

Take $D_{\mu }={\partial }_{\mu }+i{K}_{\mu }$, with the Pauli matrices acting on the Higgs doublet. For electroweak hypercharge $Y=1/2$,This specifies every component of the gauge covariant derivative for the electroweak interaction. Expanding the gauge-covariant kinetic term makes its derivative, trilinear and quartic interactions explicit:where the Pauli matrix multiplication law givesThe antisymmetric Pauli contribution vanishes because $W_{\mu }^a{W}^{b\mu }$ is symmetric in $a,b$. Reversing the sign convention for $D_{\mu }$ reverses the linear gauge interactions consistently, without changing the masses.

A nonzero vacuum expectation value requires ${\mu }^2<0$. Minimizing the Higgs potential gives $v^2=-{\mu }^2/\lambda$. By an gauge transformation choosein unitary gauge. The electroweak doublet gauge-boson mass matrix follows by inserting the vacuum expectation value in the gauge-covariant kinetic term:Define the charged electroweak gauge bosons and the neutral rotation through the Weinberg angle bywith inverse $W_{\mu }^3=c_W{Z}_{\mu }+s_W{A}_{\mu }$ and $B_{\mu }=-s_W{Z}_{\mu }+c_W{A}_{\mu }$. ThenThe factors differ because $W^{+}$ and $W^{-}$ are conjugate fields whereas $Z$ is real. The massless photon corresponds to the unbroken Lie algebra generator $Q=T_3+Y$, which annihilates $⟨\varphi ⟩$. Thus three of the four real gauge bosons acquire mass, with $m_W=m_Z{c}_W$. The three would-be Goldstone bosons provide their longitudinal polarizations; the remaining scalar $h$ is the Higgs boson.

Introduce the left-handed lepton doublet $L=({\nu }_{eL},e_L{)}^T$, with $Y_L=-1/2$, and the right-handed singlet $e_R$, with $Y_R=-1$. Use the chiral projectors $P_L=(1-{\gamma }^5)/2$ and $P_R=(1+{\gamma }^5)/2$ in the course's convention. The minimal Standard Model has no right-handed neutrino. The gauge-invariant fermion terms areThe doublet contraction in the Yukawa interaction is a singlet, and its total hypercharge is $+1/2+1/2-1=0$. A bare term ${\bar{e}}_L{e}_R$ would fail electroweak gauge invariance. The gauge covariant derivatives above already give all the requested fermion-gauge couplings. In terms of mass eigenstates, $e=g{s}_W=g^{\prime }{c}_W$ and they becomeThus the weak charged current is chiral and the neutrino has zero electric charge. The gauge-invariant electron Yukawa mass follows from the Yukawa interaction after electroweak symmetry breaking:Rephase $e_R$ to make $y_e$ real and positive. It givesThe electron Dirac mass is therefore compatible with the original gauge symmetry through the Higgs mechanism. The neutrino remains massless in this minimal renormalizable lepton sector.

The strong-interaction matrix element between two spin-zero pseudoscalar mesons has only $p^{\mu }$ and $k^{\mu }$ available. The product of the two intrinsic parities is positive. An axial current would require a pseudovector constructed from these momenta, but an expression involving the Levi-Civita symbol needs three independent four-vectors and therefore vanishes. This is a consequence of parity conservation in the hadronic matrix element, not of parity conservation in the weak interaction. The vector current can have the two independent structures $p+k$ and $p-k$. Its coefficients are Lorentz scalars; with $p^2=m_K^2$ and $k^2=m_{\pi }^2$ fixed, their only varying invariant is $s=q^2$. HenceThese are the pseudoscalar-to-pseudoscalar form factors. With relativistically normalized states they are dimensionless. The vanishing axial matrix element and this decomposition explain the two equalities separately.

Write $q_1$ and $q_2$ for the outgoing electron and antineutrino momenta. From the Fermi interaction, an invariant scattering amplitude, up to an irrelevant overall sign or phase, isThe CKM matrix element $V_{us}$ multiplies the quark current in the convention of this interaction. Let ${\ell }_{\mu }=\bar{u}(q_1){\gamma }_{\mu }(1-{\gamma }^5)v(q_2)$. For massless leptons, the massless Dirac equation and chirality matrix anticommutation giveIn the second term move $/q_2$ through the chiral projector before applying $/q_{2}v=0$. Since $p+k=2p-q$, this transverse massless leptonic current givesThe disappearance of $f_{-}$ uses the massless approximation; for a massive charged lepton its contraction is proportional to the lepton mass.

Use the fermion spin sum and the supplied gamma matrix trace identities. The symmetric part of the leptonic tensor isThe Levi-Civita symbol term is antisymmetric and drops out when contracted with $p^{\mu }{p}^{\nu }$. ThusThere is no initial-spin average because the kaon is spinless. For the integrated massless leptonic tensor, keep every factor of $2\pi$ explicit and define the unnormalized two-lepton Lorentz-invariant phase spaceThe leptons are massless, so $q_i^0=|{\mathbf{q}}_i|$. Its trace is $g^{\mu \nu }{I}_{\mu \nu }=\pi s$. ThereforeThe three Lorentz-invariant phase-space measures and their momentum delta function contribute $1/[8(2\pi {)}^5]$, in addition to $1/(2m_K)$ in the decay rate. Combining them with the spin sum givesThis massless semileptonic pseudoscalar decay rate uses a two-lepton integral over future-timelike $q$ and the pion integral is restricted to the physically allowed region. The null endpoint follows by continuity. The coefficient has mass dimension $-5$, so the complete expression has mass dimension one, as a decay rate must in natural units.

In the kaon centre-of-momentum frame, put $E=k^0$ and $\kappa =|\mathbf{k}|$. ThenThe dimensionally consistent Källén function isThe pion-only mass term must have fourth power: the second power printed in the PDF is dimensionally inconsistent. This repair also follows directly from squaring $E=(m_K^2+m_{\pi }^2-s)/(2m_K)$. Angular integration and the change of variable givewhere the negative sign reverses the endpoints. Combining this with the bracket $\lambda /4$ yieldsThus $\boxed{B=G_F^2|V_{us}{|}^2/(192{\pi }^3{m}_K^3),a=0,b=(m_K-m_{\pi }{)}^2}$. The lower limit is the minimum invariant mass of two massless leptons; at the upper limit the pion is at rest. The coefficient has mass dimension $-7$, while $ds{\lambda }^{3/2}$ has dimension eight. The Källén function also shows why the differential decay rate vanishes at zero pion momentum.

At one loop, writing $t=\log \mu$ makes the renormalization-group beta function $d{g}_i/dt=b_i{g}_i^3$. For $b_i>0$ a positive running coupling grows towards high energies and decreases towards the infrared. Extrapolation of the one-loop expression gives a finite ultraviolet Landau pole; perturbation theory fails before it reaches that pole. For $b_i<0$, the coupling decreases towards high energies, giving asymptotic freedom, and grows towards the infrared. The formal infrared pole identifies a strong-coupling scale, where the weak-coupling approximation no longer applies. These conclusions concern the small-coupling branch; a pole in the perturbative solution does not establish a pole in the exact theory. If $b_i=0$, higher-order terms decide the running.

From ${\alpha }_i=g_i^2/(4\pi )$,Integrating the one-loop beta function givesThese formulas retain the same particle content and neglect threshold corrections throughout the interval. For $b_i>0$, the formal pole is $\mu =m_Z\exp [1/(8\pi b_i{\alpha }_i(m_Z))]$; for $b_i<0$ the analogous scale lies below $m_Z$.

For one-loop normalized hypercharge unification, the normalized hypercharge coupling is ${\alpha }_Y^{\mathrm{GUT}}=(5/3){\alpha }_1$, so its inverse and one-loop slope are $(3/5){\alpha }_1^{-1}$ and $(3/5)b_1$. DefineEquality of the three normalized inverses at the unification scale givesEliminating $L_G$ provesThis expression assumes $(3/5)b_1\ne b_2$. If these slopes coincide, unification first requires $U_1=U_2$, and the displayed division is unavailable. A unification scale above $m_Z$ additionally requires the inferred $L_G$ to be positive. The relation is a consistency condition under the stated one-loop assumptions, not proof that the measured couplings unify without threshold effects.

For the two-loop running coupling, the claimed logarithmic asymptotic concerns the asymptotically free branch with ${\beta }_0>0$ and $\mu /\Lambda \to \infty$. SetThe differential equation becomes $dy/dL={\beta }_0+{\beta }_1/y={\beta }_0(1+c/y)$. Separating variables yieldsA change of the strong-coupling scale $\Lambda$ absorbs any additive constant $K$. Choose that scale so that $K=-c\log {\beta }_0$. On the large positive-$y$ branch the exact implicit relation is thenIt first gives $y\sim {\beta }_{0}L$. Substituting this back into the logarithm gives $y={\beta }_{0}L+c\log L+o(1)$. To determine the error rather than assume it, write $y={\beta }_{0}L+c\log L+r(L)$. Expansion of the exact implicit relation yieldsConsequently the mathematically correct two-loop asymptotic isMore precisely, the next term is $\boxed{{\beta }_1^2(\log L+1)/({\beta }_0^{3}L)}$. For ${\beta }_1\ne 0$ this is not $O(1/L)$: multiplying the remainder by $L$ makes it grow as $({\beta }_1^2/{\beta }_0^3)\log L$. No fixed change of $\Lambda$ can remove this term. Such a change adds a constant to $L$ and changes only constant or $1/L$ contributions, rather than the coefficient of $\log L/L$. Thus the two leading terms requested are correct, but the literal remainder printed in the PDF is too small. This is the two-loop inverse-coupling logarithmic remainder.

If ${\beta }_1=0$, the one-loop result $y={\beta }_{0}L$ is exact after choosing $\Lambda$. If ${\beta }_0=0$, the displayed expansion is undefined and the differential equation instead gives $y^2=2{\beta }_1\log \mu +\text{constant}$. For ${\beta }_0<0$, a positive weak coupling does not approach zero at arbitrarily large $\mu$ along the branch used above. The asymptotic assumptions therefore matter as well as the remainder.