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An Euler-Cauchy equation has powers of the independent variable matching the derivative orders, for example $a{x}^2{y}^{\prime \prime }+bx{y}^{\prime }+cy=0$. On $x>0$, trying $y=x^r$ gives the algebraic equation $ar(r-1)+br+c=0$. Distinct roots give two power solutions; a repeated root $r$ gives $x^r$ and $x^r\log x$.

The substitution $t=\log x$ explains the recipe: $x{y}^{\prime }=Y_t$ and $x^2{y}^{\prime \prime }=Y_{tt}-Y_t$, so the equation becomes a constant-coefficient differential equation. For $x^2{y}^{\prime \prime }-x{y}^{\prime }+y=0$, the repeated root is one and the solution is $y=x(A+B\log x)$. Intervals crossing zero require separate attention because zero is a singular point of a differential equation.

Work first on $x>0$, where the proposed logarithm is defined. Substitution of $y=x^m$ into the Cauchy-Euler differential equation gives the indicial equationIts distinct indicial roots are $m=\pm i$. Using $x^{\pm i}=e^{\pm i\log x}$ and Euler's formula, a real basis of solutions is $\cos (\log x),\sin (\log x)$. Their Wronskian is $1/x$, so they are linearly independent and span the two-dimensional solution space of a homogeneous linear differential equation. ThereforeFor the requested change of variables, set $Y(z)=y(e^z)$. The chain rule givesThe transformed second-order linear differential equation is $Y^{\prime \prime }+Y=0$. Its characteristic roots are again $\pm i$, giving $Y(z)=A\cos z+B\sin z$. Substituting $z=\log x$ recovers precisely the previous general solution.

If solutions on $x<0$ are wanted, the same calculation uses $z=\log |x|$ and gives independent constants on that interval. Zero is a singular point of a differential equation; the logarithmic oscillations do not define a nonzero continuous solution through it.

On an interval where $p,q$ are continuous, define the WronskianUsing the two second-order linear differential equations to eliminate the second derivatives givesThe integrating factor yields the Abel identityThus the Wronskian either vanishes identically or is nonzero everywhere on the interval. If $u_1,u_2$ are linearly dependent, it is identically zero. Conversely, if $W(x_0)=0$, the two initial-data vectors are dependent, so some nontrivial linear combination has both value and first derivative zero at $x_0$. The uniqueness theorem for ordinary differential equations makes that combination identically zero. Hence the solutions are linearly independent exactly when their Wronskian is nonzero at one, and therefore every, point. Continuity and the common differential equation are essential to this converse.

For the particular equation, divide by $x^2$ on either interval $x>0$ or $x<0$. The coefficient of $y^{\prime }$ is zero, so its Wronskian is constant there. The proposed $y_1=x^2$ satisfies $x^2{y}_1^{\prime \prime }-2y_1=2x^2-2x^2=0$. To construct a second solution by reduction of order, imposeDividing by $x^4$ shows that $(y_2/x^2{)}^{\prime }=C/x^4$, givingTaking $C=-3,D=0$ producesThe nonzero Wronskian proves linear independence; hence the general solution on either nonsingular interval is $y=A{x}^2+B/x$. Zero is a singular point of a differential equation and is excluded from this construction.

In the normalized second-order linear differential equation, an ordinary point $z_0$ is one at which both $p$ and $q$ are holomorphic functions in a neighbourhood of $z_0$. A singular point of a differential equation is a point that is not ordinary. A singular point $z_0$ is a regular singular point if $(z-z_0)p(z)$ and $(z-z_0{)}^{2}q(z)$ extend analytically to $z_0$. Equivalently, $p$ has at most a simple pole and $q$ at most a double pole there. If a singular point fails this test, it is an irregular singular point. The normalized form matters: zeros of a leading coefficient must first be assessed after division by that coefficient.

Divide by the leading coefficient for $x\ne 0,1$:The pole of $P$ makes $x=0$ a singular point of a differential equation. However,are real analytic at zero. ThereforeThe ordinary-point power-series theorem does not apply there, but the Frobenius method does.

For nonzero $b$, the coefficients satisfy $a_n\sim -b/n^2$, so the analytic power series has radius of convergence $1$. It converges absolutely also at $x=\pm 1$, by comparison with $\sum n^{-2}$.

The real logarithm in the prescribed solution requires $x>0$. ConsequentlyThe series and the function itself have finite limits at $x=1$; in fact the logarithmic companion tends to $1$. Its derivatives are singular there, so convergence of its values at the endpoint does not make it a classical solution through that singular point of a differential equation. At $x=0$ the logarithmic branch diverges. The independent analytic solution $C(1-x)$ is a polynomial and has no such convergence restriction.

For $y_1=(1-x{)}^{-1}$, the derivatives are $y_1^{\prime }=(1-x{)}^{-2}$ and $y_1^{\prime \prime }=2(1-x{)}^{-3}$. Consequently the left-hand side of the ordinary differential equation iswhere $x\ne 1$.

Use reduction of order, writing $y=u/(1-x)$. A direct application of the product rule givesFor $v=u^{\prime }$ the resulting first-order ordinary differential equation is $v^{\prime }/v=2/(1-x)$ whenever $v\ne 0$. Integration yields $v=C(1-x{)}^{-2}$ and $u=A+B/(1-x)$; the case $v=0$ is already included. Henceon either interval $x<1$ or $x>1$. The two displayed solutions of a differential equation are linearly independent, so they span the solution space of a homogeneous linear differential equation on either interval. The point $x=1$ is a singular point of a differential equation and cannot be crossed by a nonzero member of this family that remains finite there.

For a scalar linear ordinary differential equation written in normalized form $y^{\prime \prime }+p(x)y^{\prime }+q(x)y=0$, an ordinary point has coefficients that are analytic functions $p,q$ in a neighborhood; a point where this fails is a singular point of a differential equation. It is a regular singular point if $(x-a)p(x)$ and $(x-a{)}^{2}q(x)$ nevertheless extend analytically across $a$. This weaker condition allows the Frobenius method.

For $x^2{y}^{\prime \prime }+x{y}^{\prime }-y=0$, the origin is regular singular, and the solutions $x$ and $x^{-1}$ demonstrate that an equation's singular point need not be singular for every solution. The classification concerns the normalized equation, rather than any one selected solution.