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For $a_n=(-1{)}^n(n+1)$, direct finite summation gives $s_{2m}=m+1$ and $s_{2m+1}=-(m+1)$. ConsequentlyThe distinct even and odd subsequential limits prevent first-order Cesàro summation. More averaging is a different method; a value assigned by another method is not a first-order Cesàro sum.

Dropping either condition destroys the implication. The increasing sequence $a_n=n$ has a lower bound one but no upper bound, and no finite limit of a sequence. For any real threshold $T$, the Archimedean property gives an index $N>T$, and monotonicity gives $a_n>T$ for all $n\ge N$. Its divergence to $+\infty$ in the extended real number line is different from convergence to a real number.

Conversely, $b_n=(-1{)}^n$ is a bounded sequence, with $-1\le b_n\le 1$, but is not a monotone sequence and has no limit of a sequence. Its subsequence at even integers is constantly one, and its subsequence at odd integers is constantly minus one. These two subsequential limits cannot both equal a single limit of a sequence. ^[ref]

The ambient real numbers also matter. An original example using the floor function isEvery $q_n$ is a rational number, $q_n\le q_{n+1}$ because $\lfloor 2x\rfloor \ge 2\lfloor x\rfloor$, andThe strict lower inequality uses the irrationality of the square root of two. Hence this bounded sequence converges to $\sqrt{2}$ in the real numbers, but has no limit of a sequence in the rational numbers. Convergence to a rational candidate would also be convergence in the real numbers, contradicting uniqueness of the limit of a sequence. The formulas give $q_1=1$, $q_2=5/4$, $q_3=11/8$, $q_4=11/8$: this counterexample even has a plateau. This illustrates why completeness of the real numbers matters: the rational numbers lack the least-upper-bound property needed to contain the required supremum. ^[ref]

Every bounded sequence of real numbers contains a subsequence with a finite limit of a sequence. If $|x_n|\le M$ for every positive integer $n$, there are integers $n_1<n_2<\cdots$ and a real number $\ell$ such thatThe increasing indices matter: a subsequence retains the original order and selects terms arbitrarily far along the original sequence. The theorem guarantees the existence of at least one such selection; it does not claim that the entire sequence converges or that the subsequential limit is unique.^[ref]

For example, the bounded sequence $x_n=(-1{)}^n+1/(n+1)$ has two distinct subsequential limits:The even terms form a convergent sequence, and so do the odd terms. The full sequence cannot have a limit of a sequence because its two subsequences have different limits. Its limit superior is $1$ and its limit inferior is $-1$.

This is useful when a construction produces many candidate points but does not immediately produce a convergent sequence. For a continuous function on a nonempty closed bounded feasible region in a finite-dimensional Euclidean space, take a sequence whose objective values approach the infimum. A convergent subsequence supplies a candidate point; a closed subset retains that point, and continuity passes the objective values to the limit of a sequence. This is the mechanism behind attainment in the extreme value theorem. The diagonal subsequence argument extends the real-sequence theorem to finite-dimensional Euclidean space.

The theorem is named for Bernard Bolzano and Karl Weierstrass.^[ref]

Construct partial sums $s_n$ from alternating blocks of zero and one, with lengths $1,3,9,27,\dots$. Block $j$, beginning with $j=0$, has length $3^j$ and value zero when $j$ is even, one when $j$ is odd. Define a series by $a_0=s_0$ and $a_n=s_n-s_{n-1}$ for $n\ge 1$; the telescoping series identity recovers these chosen partial sums. They remain in $[0,1]$.

At the end of odd block $2m+1$, the Cesàro mean is exactly $3/4$. At the end of even block $2m$, it isThese two subsequences have different subsequential limits, so the series has no first-order Cesàro sum. A later block remains a substantial fraction of everything averaged so far. Boundedness alone therefore does not ensure a stable average.

The limit inferior and limit superior retain the lower and upper long-run behaviour of a real sequence, even when it has no ordinary limit of a sequence. For each tail of a sequence beginning at $N$, defineDiscarding more initial terms raises or preserves the infimum and lowers or preserves the supremum. Hence $(l_N)$ is nondecreasing and $(u_N)$ is nonincreasing. Their limits exist in the extended real number line:For a bounded sequence, both values are finite and $\mathrm{liminf}{a}_n\le \mathrm{limsup}{a}_n$. These bounds use the entire infinite tail of a sequence, rather than the last few observed terms. ^[ref].

Take the original example $a_n=(-1{)}^n(1+1/n)$, beginning $-2,3/2,-4/3,5/4,\dots$. The subsequence at even integers decreases toward one, while the subsequence at odd integers increases toward minus one. If $e_N$ is the first even integer at least $N$ and $o_N$ is the first odd integer at least $N$, thenThus $\mathrm{liminf}{a}_n=-1$ and $\mathrm{limsup}{a}_n=1$. The finite initial extreme $a_1=-2$ disappears from later lower bounds; neither long-run value is attained by any term of this example.

For a bounded sequence, the limit inferior is the smallest subsequential limit and the limit superior is the largest subsequential limit; both are reached by suitable convergent subsequences. Every other subsequential limit lies between them. In the example there are only two subsequential limits, $-1$ and $1$: a convergent subsequence cannot retain infinitely many terms of both parities, because those two branches stay separated. The whole interval between the two bounds need not consist of subsequential limits. ^[ref].

A finite ordinary limit of a sequence exists exactly when the limit inferior and limit superior agree at the same finite value $L$. The bounds $l_N\le a_N\le u_N$ and the squeeze theorem prove the sufficient direction. For a bounded sequence, its tail diameter of a sequence is $D_N=u_N-l_N$, so the limiting gap is zero exactly when the Cauchy sequence condition holds. In the example the gap approaches two, not zero. The same framework allows infinite bounds: $a_n=n$ has both values $+\infty$, whereas $a_n=(-1{)}^{n}n$ has limit inferior $-\infty$ and limit superior $+\infty$. Equality at infinity describes escape rather than convergence to a real value. ^[ref].

Begin with a closed interval $I_0=[a,b]$ containing the entire bounded sequence. Split the interval at its midpoint. At least one of the two closed halves contains infinitely many indexed terms; choose such a half and repeat. This gives nested intervals $I_j$ with lengths $(b-a)/2^j$. The nested interval theorem, using completeness of the real numbers, supplies their unique common point $\ell$.

Choose $n_j>n_{j-1}$ with $x_{n_j}\in I_j$. Infinitely many indexed terms in $I_j$ guarantee that the next index can be chosen. Both $x_{n_j}$ and $\ell$ belong to $I_j$, soThis is a short existence proof, not necessarily a finite algorithm for an arbitrary input sequence: deciding which half contains infinitely many future terms may require mathematical knowledge about that sequence.

For the first sequence, $|a_n|=n^{-3}\to 0$. The squeeze theorem gives $a_n\to 0$, and every subsequence of a convergent sequence has the same limit of a sequence. Thus its set of subsequential limits is $\boxed{\{0\}}$.

For the second sequence, the four possible sine values giveThe even-indexed subsequence is constantly one, and $b_{4k+3}\to 0$, so both zero and one occur as subsequential limits. A convergent subsequence is bounded, so it contains only finitely many terms with $n\equiv 1(\mathrm{mod}4)$. Of the remaining three residue classes, at least one occurs infinitely often. The corresponding further subsequence has limit of a sequence zero or one; the subsequence rule forces the original convergent subsequence to have that same limit of a sequence. Therefore the exact answer is $\boxed{\{0,1\}}$. Divergence to $+\infty$ along $n\equiv 1(\mathrm{mod}4)$ is not a finite subsequential limit.

The sequence does not converge. For $n=2^k$, the largest prime factor is $p(n)=2$, while the sum of prime factors with multiplicity is $s(n)=2k$. This subsequence therefore has ratio $1/k\to 0$.

There are infinitely many prime numbers: if there were only $q_1,\dots ,q_r$, a prime factor of $q_1\cdots q_r+1$ would be absent from the list. Listing the prime numbers in increasing order gives a subsequence of indices $n=q_j$ for which $p(n)=s(n)=q_j$, so the ratio is constantly one. Every subsequence of a convergent sequence has the same limit of a sequence. The two distinct subsequential limits $\boxed{0\text{ and }1}$ rule out convergence.

A subsequential limit of a sequence $(a_n)$ is a value $L$ approached by some subsequence $(a_{n_k})$ with strictly increasing indices $n_k$. For $a_n=(-1{)}^n(1+1/n)$, the subsequences at even integers and odd integers give subsequential limits one and minus one. A finite value appearing among only finitely many initial terms does not become a subsequential limit merely by being a member of the image of a function represented by the sequence.

For a bounded sequence of real numbers, its subsequential limits form a nonempty bounded set that is also a closed set. The Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem guarantees nonemptiness, and its extreme values are the limit inferior and limit superior. The sequence in sparse peaks can determine a limit superior has the two subsequential limits zero and one, despite almost all indices in the natural density sense carrying zero.