Past exam of the classical mechanics course of the University of Oxford / 2023 / 1

Each simple pendulum moves in the vertical plane containing the pivots. Ignoring contact between the ideal rods and point masses, each rod can turn through a full circle. Thus the configuration space is the torusChoose generalized coordinates ${\theta }_1,{\theta }_2$, measured from the downward vertical, positive towards the right and understood modulo $2\pi$. These angles are local coordinates on the torus, rather than a single globally one-to-one real coordinate chart. With upward Cartesian coordinate $y$, the bob positions areTheir velocities satisfy $|{\dot{\mathbf{r}}}_j{|}^2=l^2{\dot{\theta }}_j^2$, so kinetic energy from Cartesian position vectors givesThe spring length is the Euclidean distanceTaking gravitational potential energy zero at pivot height gives $V_g=-mgl(\cos {\theta }_1+\cos {\theta }_2)$. The spring potential energy is $V_s=k(d-r{)}^2/2$, since $r$ is its natural length. Consequently the Lagrangian isIn the paper's notation $t({\theta }_1,{\theta }_2)=V_s$; this function is distinct from the time variable. This is the exact Lagrangian of two spring-coupled pendulums.

One alternative Lagrangian isIt corresponds to setting gravitational potential energy zero at the downward position. The constant disappears from every Euler-Lagrange equation. More generally, total-time-derivative invariance of a Lagrangian allows $\tilde{L}=L+dF({\theta }_1,{\theta }_2,t)/dt$ for any smooth $F$.

Set $l=m=g=1$. At $({\theta }_1,{\theta }_2)=(0,0)$ the spring has $d=r$, so its potential energy has zero gradient: ${\partial }_j{V}_s=k(d-r){\partial }_{j}d=0$. The gravitational potential energy has ${\partial }_j{V}_g=\sin {\theta }_j=0$ there. Zero velocities therefore satisfy the Euler-Lagrange equations, proving this is an equilibrium.

For fixed $r>0$, let $\epsilon =\max (|{\theta }_1|,|{\theta }_2|)$ and $\delta ={\theta }_2-{\theta }_1$. The Taylor series giveThus, near the downward equilibrium, the horizontal separation is positive andIn particular, $V_s=k{\delta }^2/2+O({\epsilon }^4)$ and $V_g=-2+({\theta }_1^2+{\theta }_2^2)/2+O({\epsilon }^4)$. Dropping the additive constant and terms beyond quadratic order gives the harmonic approximationFor physical spring constant $k\ge 0$, the quadratic potential energy is a positive-definite quadratic form. The downward position is therefore a stable equilibrium in Lagrangian mechanics, and its nearby motion admits small oscillations.

The Euler-Lagrange equations of the quadratic Lagrangian areThe mechanical mass matrix is the identity. A normal mode $\mathbf{\theta }=\mathbf{a}\cos (\omega t+\varphi )$ therefore satisfies the eigenvalue problem $\mathsf{K}\mathbf{a}={\omega }^2\mathbf{a}$. Direct multiplication givesThese are normal modes of two spring-coupled equal pendulums. The corresponding normal mode coordinates $u={\theta }_1+{\theta }_2$ and $v={\theta }_1-{\theta }_2$ obey $\ddot{u}+u=0$ and $\ddot{v}+(1+2k)v=0$.

For the in-phase normal mode, the bobs undergo identical displacements, leaving their separation exactly $r$. The spring stays at its natural length and exerts no force, so this angular frequency is independent of $k$. The value $1$ is the individual simple pendulum angular frequency $\sqrt{g/l}$ in the chosen units.

Write $w=\sqrt{1+2k}$. The initial conditions on the normal mode coordinates are $u(0)=v(0)=0$ and $\dot{u}(0)=\dot{v}(0)=k$. Solving the two harmonic oscillator equations and recovering the original angles gives the exact solution within the harmonic approximation:Their angular velocities are ${\dot{\theta }}_1=k(\cos t+\cos wt)/2$ and ${\dot{\theta }}_2=k(\cos t-\cos wt)/2$, which verify all four initial conditions.

To expose the beat, define $\Delta =w-1$ and $\Omega =(w+1)/2$. Replacing $1/w$ by $1$ changes each angle by $O(k^2)$ uniformly in time. The sum-to-product identities then giveThe displayed angular velocities are exact in the linear system. The absolute and signed beat envelopes have leading amplitudes $k|\cos (\Delta t/2)|$ and $k|\sin (\Delta t/2)|$. Because $\Delta =k+O(k^2)$, at $\tau =\pi /k$ we have $\Delta \tau /2=\pi /2+O(k)$ and $\Omega \tau =\tau +\pi /2+O(k)$. HenceThe first simple pendulum has negligible oscillation amplitude. Its kinetic energy is $T_1(\tau )=O(k^4)$, while the second has $T_2(\tau )=k^2{\cos }^2\tau /2+O(k^3)$. Thus, to the retained order, all instantaneous kinetic energy belongs to the second simple pendulum. The fast phase can make that kinetic energy small: the whole initial energy $k^2/2$ is transferred as the second simple pendulum's combined kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy, sinceThis is energy transfer after an impulse in two weakly coupled oscillators. It does not require $\cos \tau =1$.

At $2\tau$, $\Delta (2\tau )/2=\pi +O(k)$, so the beat has returned the oscillation to the first simple pendulum:The energy localization returns, although the fast oscillation phase need not equal its initial phase. The exact first minimum of the leading beat envelope is at $\pi /\Delta$, whose leading value is $\pi /k$. Keeping the slow phase $\Delta t$ is essential: expanding $\sin (wt)$ at fixed $t$ and then using $t=O(1/k)$ would lose the energy exchange. Although angles are retained only to order $k$, their leading energies are of order $k^2$.