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Taking the derivative of the force-dependent energy givesThus the derivative of the additional minimized internal energy with respect to the applied force equals the resulting endpoint displacement. This is the endpoint force derivative of clamped-free beam energy.

Write the spatial factors of the stationary wavefunction aswhereSince $U_0-E=E$, the decay constant inside the potential barrier is also $k$. Continuity of the wavefunction and its first derivative at $x=-a$ and $x=a$ gives four linear equations. Solving them yieldsConsequently the transmitted wave isand its probability density isThis is finite square barrier transmission at half barrier height.

For $a\in U$, the function $f:U\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ is differentiable at $a$ if there is a linear map $A:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ such thatThe linear map is unique and is the Fréchet derivative $D{f}_a=A$. The function is continuously differentiable at $a$ if it is differentiable on a neighbourhood of $a$ and the map $x\mapsto D{f}_x$, with values in the space of linear maps equipped with the operator norm, is continuous at $a$.

If $T:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ is linear, thenConsequently $D{T}_a=T$ at every $a$. The derivative is a constant function of $a$, hence is continuous, so every linear map is continuously differentiable everywhere.

The mean value inequality says that if the line segment $[x,y]$ lies in $U$ andthenTo prove it, put $v=f(y)-f(x)$. The claim is immediate if $v=0$. Otherwise set $e=v/\Vert v\Vert$ and apply the one-dimensional mean value theorem to the real-valued functionFor some $c\in (0,1)$, the chain rule givesas required.

Now suppose that $U$ is open and connected and that $D{f}_a=0$ for every $a\in U$. Every point has an open ball contained in $U$. The mean value inequality with $M=0$ shows that $f$ is constant on each such ball, so $f$ is locally constant. Fix $a_0\in U$. The level setis nonempty and open in $U$; its complement is also open because $f$ is locally constant. Since $U$ is connected, $E=U$. This proves the zero derivative on a connected open set result: $f$ is constant.

The inverse function theorem states that if $f:U\to {\mathbb{R}}^m$ is continuously differentiable, $a\in U$, and $D{f}_a$ is an invertible linear map, then there are open neighbourhoods $V$ of $a$ and $W$ of $f(a)$ such that $f{|}_V:V\to W$ is a bijection whose inverse is continuously differentiable.

For the curve in the question, define the continuously differentiable functionThenThe implicit function theorem, which follows from the inverse function theorem applied to $(x,y)\mapsto (x,F(x,y))$, therefore gives an open interval $I$ containing $0$, an open neighbourhood $U_0$ of $(0,0)$, and a continuously differentiable, hence continuous, function $g:I\to \mathbb{R}$ such that

Taking the complex derivative along the real direction givesTaking it along the imaginary direction and equating the two expressions gives the Cauchy-Riemann equations

Differentiate the affine relation with respect to $x$ and $y$:Using the Cauchy-Riemann equations, the second equation becomesThusThe determinant is $-(a^2+b^2)\ne 0$, so $u_x=v_x=0$ and therefore $f^{\prime }=0$. A holomorphic function with zero derivative on a connected open set is constant. Hence $f$ is constant, as in analytic function with image in an affine real line.

Away from $x=\xi$, the Green function solves $G^{\prime \prime }-G=0$. The solution satisfying the left boundary condition is proportional to $\sinh x$, while the solution decaying at infinity is proportional to $e^{-x}$. Continuity at $\xi$ and the unit derivative jumpgiveor $G=-\sinh (\min \{x,\xi \})e^{-\max \{x,\xi \}}$, the dirichlet half-line Green function for d2 minus 1.

The required solution isEvaluation of the two elementary integrals, split at $\xi =x$, givesIndeed, direct differentiation gives $y^{\prime \prime }-y=e^{-2x}$, and both boundary conditions are immediate.

Suppose ${\chi }_1$ and ${\chi }_2$ are two bound-state solutions with the same energy. Their Wronskiansatisfies $W^{\prime }=0$ because the Schrödinger equation contains no first-derivative term. Hence $W$ is constant. Both wavefunctions and their derivatives decay at infinity, so $W\to 0$ there and therefore $W\equiv 0$. The two solutions are linearly dependent. Thus every one-dimensional bound-state energy is nondegenerate.

If $F:X\to Y$ is a nonconstant holomorphic map between compact connected Riemann surfaces, its local degree at $p$ is the integer $m_F(p)\ge 1$ for which suitable local coordinates giveThe valency theorem states thatis independent of $y\in Y$. This common value is the degree of a holomorphic map, denoted $\mathrm{deg}F$.

Now let $f$ be a nonconstant rational function of degree $d$. If its distinct finite poles have orders $m_1,\dots ,m_r$, and its pole order at infinity is $m_{\infty }\ge 0$, thenThe derivative $f^{\prime }$ has a pole of order $m_j+1$ at each finite pole. When $m_{\infty }>0$, the expansion $f(z)\sim c{z}^{m_{\infty }}$ shows that $f^{\prime }(z)\sim c{m}_{\infty }{z}^{m_{\infty }-1}$ at infinity. Hence the degree of the derivative of a rational function isIn the first case $r\ge 0$, while in the second $1\le r\le d$; thereforeFor every $d\ge 1$, the lower bound is attained by $f(z)=z^d$, whose derivative has degree $d-1$ (with a constant assigned degree zero). For distinct $a_1,\dots ,a_d$, the functionhas $d$ simple poles, degree $d$, and a derivative with $d$ double poles, so $\mathrm{deg}{f}^{\prime }=2d$. Thus both rational bounds are sharp for every $d$.

Let next $g$ be a nonconstant elliptic function for the period lattice $\Lambda$. Its degree is the total order of its poles in a fundamental parallelogram; by the valency theorem, this is also the degree of the induced map $\mathbb{C}/\Lambda \to \hat{\mathbb{C}}$. If these poles have orders $n_1,\dots ,n_s$, then $d=\mathrm{deg}g={\sum }_j{n}_j$, and $g^{\prime }$ has poles of orders $n_j+1$. The degree of the derivative of an elliptic function is consequentlySince every nonconstant elliptic function has at least one pole and $1\le s\le d$,

Let $d\ge 3$ be odd. The Weierstrass elliptic function supplies the lower-bound exampleIt has one pole modulo $\Lambda$, of order $d$, so its derivative has one pole of order $d+1$. For the upper bound, choose distinct points $a_1,\dots ,a_d$ modulo $\Lambda$ and nonzero constants $c_j$ with ${\sum }_j{c}_j=0$. The quasi-periodicity of the Weierstrass zeta function makeselliptic. It has exactly $d$ simple poles, while $g^{\prime }$ has $d$ double poles. Therefore the two bounds are attained for every required odd degree.

No. Take $a=0$ andThen $f$ is differentiable andSince $x|x|/x=|x|\to 0$, the product is differentiable at zero withHowever, $g$ has one-sided derivatives $-1$ and $1$ and is not differentiable at zero. This is a nondifferentiable factor with a differentiable nondegenerate product.

To say that $f$ is twice differentiable at $a$ means that $f^{\prime }$ is defined in a neighbourhood of $a$ and is differentiable at $a$; its derivative is $f^{\prime \prime }(a)$.

By the chain rule, near $a$,Since $f$ is differentiable and $g^{\prime }$ is differentiable at $f(a)$, another use of the chain rule shows that $g^{\prime }\circ f$ is differentiable at $a$. The product rule then proves that the displayed product is differentiable. Hence $g\circ f$ is twice differentiable, with the second derivative chain rule

No. At $a=0$, letThe function $g$ is differentiable at $f(0)=0$, andso the composite has derivative one at zero. Butis unbounded, so $f$ is not differentiable. This is a nondifferentiable inner function with a differentiable nondegenerate composite.

Similarly,since the last derivatives are symmetric in $i,j$. Thus

Continuity at $x=\xi$ is automatic in the proposed expression. Integrating the differential equation through $x=\xi$ gives the derivative jumpThusIn terms of the Wronskianone hasThe boundary conditions hold because $y_1^{\prime }(0)=0$ and $y_2^{\prime }(1)=0$.

The Abel identity gives $W^{\prime }=-\alpha W$. If $\alpha =0$, the Wronskian and hence $c$ are constant. The two branches of the displayed formula are then interchanged by $x\leftrightarrow \xi$, provingThis is the symmetry of the Neumann Green function for a second-order ordinary differential equation in the self-adjoint case.

For $G^{\prime \prime }-G=\delta (x-\xi )$, chooseTheir Wronskian isWriting $x_{<}=\min (x,\xi )$ and $x_{>}=\max (x,\xi )$ givesThe solution of the inhomogeneous problem is $y(x)={\int }_0^{1}G(x,\xi )\xi d\xi$. Equivalently, solving directly givesThe two Neumann conditions yield $B=1$ andTherefore

At a regular constrained extremum of $f$ on $g=0$, the tangent derivatives of $f$ vanish. Since $\nabla g$ is normal to the constraint surface, the Lagrange multiplier condition isOne solves these equations and then compares the resulting candidates, including any boundary or singular cases.

Let the base have dimensions $x$ and $y$, and let the height be $z$. Measure cardboard relative to the thickness of the front and back. The weighted amount used isbecause the bottom has triple thickness, the two front and back faces have ordinary thickness, and the two side faces have double thickness. The constraint is $xyz=3$.

The multiplier equations areThey implyThus $x=2y$ and $z=3y/2$; imposing $xyz=3$ gives $y=1$. ThereforeThis is the global minimum: by the arithmetic-geometric mean inequality,and equality holds at these dimensions. This is an instance of weighted open-box minimization.

Multiplication by $(1-x^2{)}^{-1/2}$ puts the equation in Sturm-Liouville theory form:Multiply the equations for $T_n,T_m$ by $T_m,T_n$, subtract and integrate. The boundary term vanishes because $\sqrt{1-x^2}=0$ at both endpoints and the polynomial derivatives are bounded. Therefore, for $n^2\ne m^2$,This is the usual Chebyshev polynomial orthogonality.

Differentiating the original equation and writing $U_n=T_n^{\prime }$ givesIts self-adjoint form isThe same subtraction argument now yields, for $n^2\ne m^2$,These two relations form the Chebyshev derivative Sturm-Liouville pair.

Separation $y=T(t)X(x)$ and the fixed-end conditions givePutThe initial displacement and zero initial velocity then give the separated solution of the damped string equation

For the triangular initial displacement,Thus the even coefficients vanish and the odd ones alternate in sign.

LetThenOrthogonality of the sine and cosine modes, equivalently the Parseval identity, gives

The sign of its derivative is clearest directly from the equation. Integration by parts, using $y_t=0$ at the fixed endpoints, yieldsThis is the energy dissipation identity for a linearly damped string.

If the bound is to hold with finite $c$, the error functional must vanish on every polynomial whose fourth derivative is zero. Thus the scheme must be exact for degrees zero through three. Applying it to powers of $t=x+1$ givesSolving,This is the four-point one-sided second-derivative formula.

The Peano kernel theorem says that if a linear functional $L$ annihilates all polynomials of degree below $r$, then for $f\in C^r[a,b]$,

Here $r=4$ and $L=e$. Under the stated nonnegativity assumption,The integral equals $e(q)$ for $q(x)=(x+1{)}^4/24$, since $q^{(4)}=1$. Now $q^{\prime \prime }(-1)=0$ andThereforeEquality is attained by $q$, so the sharp Peano-kernel constant for the four-point endpoint second derivative is

Differentiability at $x\in {\mathbb{R}}^2$ means that there is a linear map $Df{|}_x:{\mathbb{R}}^2\to \mathbb{R}$ such thatThe partial derivatives are $D_{i}f(x)=Df{|}_x(e_i)$ when the derivative exists; independently, they may be defined by the corresponding one-variable difference quotients.

Suppose the partial derivatives exist near $x=(x_1,x_2)$ and are continuous at $x$. Apply the one-dimensional mean value theorem along the two coordinate segments from $x$ to $x+h$. It gives intermediate points ${\xi }_h,{\eta }_h\to x$ such thatContinuity of the partials makes the remainder after subtractingequal to $o(\Vert h\Vert )$. Hence $f$ is differentiable and this is its derivative.

For the given function, writing $r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}$, at $r>0$ we haveAt the origin both partial derivatives are zero, since $f(h,0)/h$ and $f(0,h)/h$ tend to zero. Neither partial is continuous there: along its corresponding coordinate axis the cosine term oscillates without a limit. Neverthelessso $f$ is differentiable at the origin with derivative zero. This illustrates that existence of partial derivatives does not imply their continuity.

The final assertion is false. DefineAgain $|g|\le r^2$, so $g$ is differentiable at the origin and it is smooth elsewhere. But along the $x$-axis,is unbounded near zero, and similarly $D_{2}g(0,y)$ is unbounded. Thus both partial derivatives can be unbounded in every neighbourhood of a point even when the function is differentiable everywhere.