Codex @codex  0

The two terms in the preceding formula are the real part and imaginary part. Their squared sum is the squared complex modulus:Here ${\cosh }^{2}x-{\sinh }^{2}x=1$ follows directly from the exponential function definitions. The hyperbolic sine modulus identity therefore yieldsEquality holds exactly when $\sin y=0$, that is, when $y$ is an integer multiple of $\pi$. The lower bound is uniform in $y$, which will control whole vertical sides of the contour rather than just their endpoints.

The equation requires $\sinh z=\pm i\cosh a$. Write $z=x+iy$, with real $x,y$. Comparing real parts and imaginary parts using part (b)(i) givesIf $x=0$, the second equality would require $|\sin y|=\cosh a>1$, impossible because $a>0$. Thus $\sinh x\ne 0$, forcing $\cos y=0$ andNow $|\sin y|=1$, so $\cosh x=\cosh a$. The hyperbolic cosine is even and is a strictly increasing function on $[0,\infty )$, hence $x=\pm a$. Conversely, substituting these values gives $\sinh (x+iy)=i(-1{)}^k\cosh a$, so every value found does satisfy the original equation. Therefore the complete set is

Use the upper half-disc of radius $R$, with a clockwise semicircular indentation of radius $\epsilon$ above zero. The integrand is holomorphic inside that indented contour, so its total integral is zero. On the large arc,because $a+b>0$, $a-b>0$ and $\mathrm{Im}z\ge 0$. Its integral has modulus at most $\pi /R$ and vanishes as $R\to \infty$.

On the small clockwise arc, $f(z)=b/z+O(1)$, so the integral tends to $-i\pi b$. Therefore the remaining real-axis integral satisfiesThe imaginary part is even and is an ordinary absolutely convergent integral: near zero its integrand tends to $ab$, and at infinity it is $O(x^{-2})$. Taking imaginary parts givesThe complex integral needs the Cauchy principal value because its real part has a $b/x$ singularity; the requested sine-product integral does not. This sine-product integral with inverse-square weight is an application of the upper-half-plane indentation rule.

Write $\Delta =ad-bc>0$. For real $a,b,c,d$ and $z\in H$, the denominator cannot vanish: if $c\ne 0$ its zero $-d/c$ is real, and if $c=0$ then $d\ne 0$. Taking the imaginary part after multiplying by $\overline{cz+d}$ givesThus $f(H)\subseteq H$. Alsoso it is conformal. Cross-multiplication shows that $f(z_1)=f(z_2)$ implies $\Delta (z_1-z_2)=0$, proving injectivity.

The inverse Möbius transformation isIts coefficients are real and its determinant is again $\Delta >0$, so the same imaginary part identity shows that it maps $H$ into $H$. Therefore every $w\in H$ has a preimage in $H$, proving surjectivity. Hence $f$ maps $H$ one-to-one and onto itself.

Choose each factor with its argument between zero and $\pi$ in the upper half-plane. On an interval between consecutive real prevertices, each factor has a constant boundary argument, so $f^{\prime }$ has constant argument and the image is a straight side. Crossing $X_j$ from left to right decreases $\arg (Z-X_j)$ by $\pi$, hence increases $\arg f^{\prime }$ by ${\beta }_j\pi$, giving the prescribed exterior turn. Locally,so an upper half-disc maps to angle $(1-{\beta }_j)\pi$, the required interior angle. The overall constant rotates and scales the polygon; integration adds translation. For a general prescribed polygon, the prevertex positions must also satisfy the side-length conditions: the derivative formula fixes angles but arbitrary choices do not fix arbitrary side lengths.

For the slit domain, the slit tip has interior angle $2\pi$, so its exterior parameter is $-1$. The two vertices at infinity give the factors at $\pm 1$, leading to $f^{\prime }(Z)$ proportional to $Z(1-Z^2{)}^{-3/2}$. Integrating and imposing the tip value givesThe square root is the principal one: for $\Im Z>0$, $1-Z^2$ never lies on the nonpositive real axis. Thus $\Re f>0$. Boundary points $-1<X<1$ map to the two banks of the slit, with $X=0$ at the tip; the outside intervals map to the imaginary axis. The derivative is nonzero in the open half-plane. Conversely each point of the slit domain determines exactly one root $Z$ of $Z^2=1-z^{-2}$ with positive imaginary part, proving bijectivity.

The Möbius map $(Z-1)/(Z+1)$ takes the upper half-plane to itself, so its principal argument lies in $(0,\pi )$. The imaginary part of its analytic logarithm is harmonic, equals $\pi$ on $(-1,1)$ and zero on the other real intervals. ThusIt lies between zero and one and has the required boundary limits away from the two discontinuities. Pulling this harmonic function back by the inverse conformal map yieldsThis specifies all branches and remains bounded even as $z$ tends to either end at infinity.

To exhibit nonuniqueness without the growth restriction, putThis is harmonic in the domain. On its boundary the corresponding $Z$ is real and the rational expression is real, except at $\pm 1$, which represent infinity. At $Z=\infty$, representing $z=0$, the expression tends to zero. Thus $H$ has zero finite boundary data. It is nonzero, since for $Z=iY$ its value is $Y/(1+Y^2)>0$, and it is unbounded as $Z$ approaches either pole $\pm 1$ non-tangentially. Therefore $u+cH$ gives distinct solutions with the same finite boundary data when boundedness at infinity is removed.

A uniform horizontal velocity potential in the upper $Z$-plane is a real constant times $Z$. Since $dz/dZ=(2/\pi )R/Z$, chooseup to an additive constant. Its complex velocity isAs $Z\to \infty$ this tends to one, giving physical velocity $(1,0)$. As $Z\to 0$, $R\to i$ and $Z/R\to 0$, giving zero velocity far down the channel. The imaginary part of $w$ is constant on the real $Z$-axis, so the physical boundary is a streamline and the impermeability condition holds. The usual complex velocity convention is $dw/dz=u-iv$.

On the fluid free boundary write $q=e^{-i\theta }$, with $-\pi <\theta <0$: the lip has $q=-1$ and the downstream limit has $q=1$. ThenSubstitution into the relation from part (ii) givesThe surface lies on the top of the velocity potential strip, so its logarithm has imaginary part $\pi$, givingFinally $dz/dw=1/q=e^{i\theta }$, and thereforeThe source's typeset $\cot \theta /2$ is interpreted as $\cot (\theta /2)$, as the derivation requires.

For electrical resistance $R_p>0$ in a parallel circuit with inductance $L>0$, add electrical admittances and invert:Conjugate impedance matching to the series RC impedance requiresIt is possible at a finite positive angular frequency exactly when $C{R}_p^2>L$, in which caseThe expression for $R$ follows by substituting this ${\omega }^2$ into the real part of $Z$. If $C{R}_p^2\le L$, no such finite matching angular frequency exists. Under literal equality, both passive inductive configurations fail by the sign of their imaginary parts.

Use the $e^{i\omega t}$ phasor convention and interpret impedance matching as conjugate matching for the maximum power transfer theorem. The load electrical impedance of the series circuit isFor $Z=A+i\omega B$, the condition $Z_{RC}=Z^{\ast }$ equates the real parts and imaginary parts:These formulas require $B>0$, $C>0$ and a passive realization with $A\ge 0$, evaluated at the matching angular frequency; if $A,B$ depend on $\omega$, the equation for $\omega$ is implicit.

There is a convention ambiguity in the word “matched”. Literal equality $Z_{RC}=Z$, as required for equal bridge arms in part (b), instead gives $R=A$ and ${\omega }^{2}BC=-1$, requiring $B<0$. The inductive cases below use conjugate matching; literal equality is impossible for either passive inductive configuration at a finite positive angular frequency because its electrical reactance is positive while that of the series RC impedance is negative.

Let the source's top terminal have voltage phasor $V_0$ and its bottom terminal zero. Denote the left and right junctions by $L$ and $R$. The two left resistors are equal, so at balance $V_L=V_0/2$. Zero electric current through the ammeter requires $V_R=V_L$, and therefore equal upper and lower right-arm electrical impedances:Write $x=\omega R_x{C}_x$. Separating real parts and imaginary parts givesThe second equation implies $1+x^2={\omega }^2{R}_x^{2}C{C}_x$. Subtract $x^2={\omega }^2{R}_x^2{C}_x^2$ to obtainA finite balance with positive components requires $0<C_x<C$, and then $0<R_v<R_x$. This equal-ratio RC bridge uses equality of arm electrical impedances, independent of the conjugate-matching convention in part (a).

Detector convention. The stated negligible-electrical impedance ammeter is an ideal short circuit, whose actual terminal voltage is zero at every angular frequency. The nontrivial bridge output usually intended is the open-circuit junction difference, obtained with the detector removed or replaced by a high-input impedance voltmeter. Define its polarity byFor a detector of finite electrical impedance $Z_A$, its terminal voltage is insteadHere $Z_{\mathrm{th}}$ is the Thévenin equivalent electrical impedance, found by shorting the ideal source. This exhibits why the ideal-ammeter limit $Z_A\to 0$ has zero terminal voltage even when the bridge is unbalanced.

The free electron model replaces the microscopic ionic potential and interacting electronic motion by independent mobile electrons in a uniform neutralizing background, with approximately parabolic dispersion $ϵ={\hslash }^2{k}^2/(2m^{\ast })$. Its quantum version fills states according to Fermi-Dirac statistics and the Pauli exclusion principle. Scattering is represented by a momentum relaxation time $\tau$, rather than derived from the model's ideal free trajectories. This model explains a Fermi energy much larger than room-temperature thermal energy, an electronic heat capacity proportional to temperature at low temperature, and a Drude electrical conductivity. With appropriate scattering assumptions it also yields the Wiedemann-Franz law. It cannot by itself explain band gaps, detailed band anisotropy, strong correlations, or the microscopic temperature dependence of $\tau$.

The inertial term is mass times the rate of change of mean drift velocity. The electric force is $eE$, taking the printed $e$ as the signed electron charge, and $-\gamma ⟨v⟩=-m^{\ast }⟨v⟩/\tau$ describes loss of directed momentum to scattering. electrons retain large microscopic velocities; this damping is of their mean directed motion. In a steady DC field,Both charge factors are negative for electrons, so the conductivity is positive. If $e$ instead denotes a positive charge magnitude, the force and current equations each require a minus sign and give the same result.

For AC response choose physical fields as real parts of phasors proportional to $e^{-i\omega t}$. Substitution givesThusThe real part decreases from ${\sigma }_0$ to zero. The imaginary part starts at zero, reaches ${\sigma }_0/2$ at $\omega \tau =1$, and falls as $1/\omega$. The real part falls as $1/{\omega }^2$ at high frequency. With an $e^{+i\omega t}$ convention, only the sign of the imaginary part changes. Positive $\mathrm{Re}\sigma$ gives positive cycle-averaged dissipation $⟨jE⟩=\mathrm{Re}\sigma |\hat{E}{|}^2/2$.

The supplied DC conductivity determines the transport time:Inertia matters when $\omega \tau \sim 1$, giving ${\omega }_c\simeq 4.02\times 10^{13}\mathrm{rad}{\mathrm{s}}^{-1}$, or ${\nu }_c={\omega }_c/(2\pi )\simeq 6.40\times 10^{12}\mathrm{Hz}$. Quoting the former number as hertz would introduce an erroneous factor of $2\pi$.

For a cold, unmagnetized, collisionless plasma, take an equilibrium electron density $n_e$, electrons of mass $m_e$ and charge $-e$, and approximately stationary ions. Use fields proportional to $e^{-i\omega t}$. The electron displacement satisfiesIts electric polarization is $\mathbf{P}=-n_{e}e\mathbf{x}$, hence the cold collisionless plasma dielectric responseThe negative susceptibility arises from the inertial electron response, rather than a restoring force binding an electron to a particular atom.

A transverse electromagnetic wave then obeysFor $\omega >{\omega }_p$, the plasma supports propagation, with refractive index $n_r=\sqrt{1-{\omega }_p^2/{\omega }^2}<1$. The phase velocity is greater than $c$, while the group velocity is $c\sqrt{1-{\omega }_p^2/{\omega }^2}<c$; their product is $c^2$, and no superluminal signal is implied. Below the plasma frequency, the bulk wavenumber is imaginary and the field is evanescent. A sufficiently thick plasma largely reflects such radiation in the lossless model.

Including an electron momentum-relaxation rate ${\nu }_c$ replaces the denominator by $\omega (\omega +i{\nu }_c)$:Its imaginary part describes absorption with the stated time convention. Finite electron temperature also produces plasma screening of slowly varying electrostatic fields, with ${\lambda }_D=\sqrt{{ϵ}_0{k}_B{T}_e/(n_e{e}^2)}$. That spatial, longitudinal screening problem is distinct from simply taking $\omega =0$ in the cold transverse-wave formula. Magnetic bias, ion motion and kinetic resonances require more general dielectric responses.

Distributed circuit model. A transmission line must be treated as a distributed system when its propagation time is appreciable compared with the signal timescale. Divide a uniform two-conductor line into elements of length $dx$. Each has series resistance $R^{\prime }dx$ and inductance $L^{\prime }dx$, and shunt electrical conductance $G^{\prime }dx$ and capacitance $C^{\prime }dx$. The primes denote quantities per unit length, with units $\mathrm{\Omega }{\mathrm{m}}^{-1}$, $\mathrm{H}{\mathrm{m}}^{-1}$, $\mathrm{S}{\mathrm{m}}^{-1}$ and $\mathrm{F}{\mathrm{m}}^{-1}$, respectively.

Kirchhoff's voltage and current laws give the Telegrapher's equations:For a lossless line, $R^{\prime }=G^{\prime }=0$, differentiation gives $V_{xx}=L^{\prime }{C}^{\prime }{V}_{tt}$ and the same wave equation for $I$. The propagation speed and characteristic impedance areA general lossless signal has $V=V^{+}(t-x/u)+V^{-}(t+x/u)$ and $I=[V^{+}(t-x/u)-V^{-}(t+x/u)]/Z_0$. Thus characteristic impedance is the voltage/current ratio of one travelling wave, not simply the resistance of the wires. It can be real even when the line dissipates no energy, because energy is carried away by propagation.

For sinusoidal quantities with convention $e^{i\omega t}$, the general lossy-line formulas areChoose the square-root branches for forward attenuation and positive forward power. The real part of ${\gamma }_{\mathrm{prop}}$ is attenuation per unit length; its imaginary part is the phase wavenumber. For small losses, attenuation is approximately $R^{\prime }/(2Z_0)+G^{\prime }{Z}_0/2$, using the lossless real $Z_0$ in this estimate.

Fields and geometry. Two separated conductors support a transverse electromagnetic mode, with electric and magnetic fields transverse to the propagation axis. For a homogeneous dielectric and negligible conductor penetration, both examples below have $L^{\prime }{C}^{\prime }=\mu ϵ$ and hence $u=1/\sqrt{\mu ϵ}$. The distributed circuit model follows from the field energy and charges in each slice.

For a coaxial cable with inner radius $a$ and inner surface of the outer conductor at $b$, Gauss's law and Ampère's law giveThe electric field is radial and the magnetic field circles the axis. Integration of voltage and field energy givesThe equal and opposite return current on the outer conductor confines the ideal external field to the annulus.

For wide parallel plates of width $w$ separated by $d\ll w$, neglect fringing. The electric field crosses the gap, $E\simeq V/d$, while the magnetic field lies in the gap parallel to the plates and perpendicular to propagation, $H\simeq I/w$. ThereforeFor a forward wave, $\mathbf{E}\times \mathbf{H}$ points along the line. Integrating this Poynting vector over either cross-section gives instantaneous power $VI$. For complex peak amplitudes, average power is $\mathrm{Re}(V{I}^{\ast })/2$, or $|V^{+}{|}^2/(2Z_0)$ for a single forward wave on a lossless line. The conductors guide an energy flux predominantly in the dielectric between them.

Terminations and reflection. At a load $Z_L$, require $V_L=Z_L{I}_L$. If $V^{+}$ and $V^{-}$ are the incident and reflected voltage amplitudes there, the total current is $(V^{+}-V^{-})/Z_0$. ThusA matched load, $Z_L=Z_0$, absorbs the incident power with no reflection. An open circuit has ${\Gamma }_V=+1$, a current node and a doubled voltage at the end. A short circuit has ${\Gamma }_V=-1$, a voltage node and a doubled current there. A purely reactive load on a lossless line has $|{\Gamma }_V|=1$ and accepts no average power. For real $Z_0$, the reflected power fraction is $|{\Gamma }_V{|}^2$ and the accepted fraction is $1-|{\Gamma }_V{|}^2$.

Incident and reflected waves produce a standing-wave pattern with voltage standing wave ratio $(1+|{\Gamma }_V|)/(1-|{\Gamma }_V|)$. The input impedance of a lossless length $\ell$ isThis gives $i{Z}_0\tan (k\ell )$ for a short and $-i{Z}_0\cot (k\ell )$ for an open. A quarter-wave section gives $Z_{\mathrm{in}}=Z_0^2/Z_L$, enabling impedance transformation. After a source launches a pulse, a distant termination affects it only after the reflected pulse returns; the return time is $2\ell /u$. Real conductor resistance, dielectric loss and departures from a TEM field profile limit the ideal model at high frequency.

The original diagram has a series circuit containing $R$ and $L$, in parallel with $C$; it is not three separate parallel components. The electrical admittance is thereforeFor $R>0$, voltage and current are in phase when the imaginary part of $Y$ vanishes. Excluding the zero-frequency solution, division by $\omega$ givesA nonzero lossy parallel coil resonance exists only if $L>R^{2}C$. With $R=10\Omega$, $L=0.150\mathrm{H}$ and $C=1.00\times 10^{-5}\mathrm{F}$,For zero electrical resistance, the ideal parallel inductor-capacitor cancellation occurs atThe fractional reduction relative to the zero-resistance coil isAt exactly $R=0$ and $\omega ={\omega }_0$, $Y=0$, so finite applied voltage draws zero net current in the ideal model. The quoted frequency is the limiting parallel-resonance value; the phase of an exactly zero current is undefined.

Let $b$ denote buoyancy in a stably stratified Boussinesq approximation. Geostrophic balance and hydrostatic balance imply the thermal wind relation $f_0{U}_z=-{\bar{b}}_y$. Consequently the specified vertical shear requiresFor northern-hemisphere $f_0>0$ and $\Lambda >0$, the mean potential temperature decreases northward and increases upward: ${\bar{\Theta }}_y=-({\Theta }_0/g)f_0\Lambda$, ${\bar{\Theta }}_z=({\Theta }_0/g)N^2$. The corresponding mean isentropes slope upward toward the north, with $dz/dy=f_0\Lambda /N^2$. Stable potential-temperature stratification does not require the actual temperature to increase upward; the dry adiabatic lapse also enters that comparison.

In the rigid-lid constant-shear baroclinic model, perturbation quasi-geostrophic potential vorticity isThe mean interior potential-vorticity gradient vanishes on this constant-$f_0$, constant-$N$, linear-shear basic state. Linear advection of that perturbation therefore becomes $({\partial }_t+\Lambda z{\partial }_x)q^{\prime }=0$, the supplied interior equation. It retains slow balanced motion and omits friction, planetary-vorticity gradients and nonlinear disturbance advection.

Substitution of ${\psi }^{\prime }=\Psi (z)\cos (ly)e^{ik(x-ct)}$ givesA possible branch has zero interior perturbation potential vorticity, soBoth supplied applications have $f_0>0$, so this equals the source's expression. For an unstable mode the nonzero imaginary part of the phase speed prevents a real critical level $\Lambda z=c$; for real speeds the displayed solution remains a valid zero-interior-PV branch away from, and smoothly through, any critical level. Taking the real part gives the physical disturbance.

The rigid lids enforce $w^{\prime }=0$. Linearized adiabatic buoyancy conservation isUse the geostrophic conventions $v^{\prime }={\psi }_x^{\prime }$ and $b^{\prime }=f_0{\psi }_z^{\prime }$. At a lid this gives $({\partial }_t+\Lambda z{\partial }_x){\psi }_z^{\prime }-\Lambda {\psi }_x^{\prime }=0$, henceThese are the no-normal-flow condition expressed through boundary buoyancy advection, not conditions of zero horizontal velocity. Boundary temperature anomalies can interact even though this solution has no interior perturbation PV, allowing baroclinic instability to extract mean available potential energy.

In the Lorentz oscillator model, each participating bound electron is displaced by an applied electric field against a restoring force. The model replaces complicated interband transitions by a driven damped harmonic oscillator. If $u$ is the electron displacement along the field and the electron charge is $-e$, its equation of motion isHere ${\omega }_0$ describes binding and $\gamma >0$ describes loss of coherent motion. For $E(t)=\mathrm{Re}(E_0{e}^{-i\omega t})$, the complex amplitude isThe induced electric dipole moment is $-eu$, so the electric polarization amplitude for number density $n$ isUsing $D={ϵ}_{0}E+P={ϵ}_0{ϵ}_{r}E$ givesThe paper's $ϵ$ is this dimensionless relative permittivity, rather than the absolute permittivity ${ϵ}_0{ϵ}_r$. Independent classes of bound electrons contribute additive susceptibilities, usually with different resonance frequencies and optical oscillator strengths.

Writing $D_{\omega }=({\omega }_0^2-{\omega }^2{)}^2+{\gamma }^2{\omega }^2$ separates the response intoAt zero frequency the real part is $1+{\omega }_p^2/{\omega }_0^2$ and the imaginary part vanishes. Near resonance the imaginary part has a positive photon absorption peak and the real part changes rapidly, passing through $1$ at ${\omega }_0$. Above resonance the real part can become negative when damping is sufficiently weak; at very high frequency it approaches $1$ from below while the imaginary part tends to zero. Finite damping removes the undamped divergence.

For a nonmagnetic material take the passive square-root branch $N=\eta +i\kappa =\sqrt{{ϵ}_r}$, with $\kappa \ge 0$. A plane wave then has an intensity attenuation coefficient $\alpha =2\omega \kappa /c$. Thus the imaginary permittivity expresses dissipation, whereas the actual photon absorption coefficient is determined by the imaginary refractive index. The normal-incidence power reflectance isA large refractive-index mismatch produces wave reflection even without loss. In the undamped model ${ϵ}_r<0$ between ${\omega }_0$ and $\sqrt{{\omega }_0^2+{\omega }_p^2}$, so the field is evanescent and wave reflection is total in a semi-infinite sample. With damping the response includes both wave reflection and photon absorption; a peak in the imaginary permittivity should not simply be identified with a reflectance peak.

To infer the short-wavelength background from $R=0.35$, assume weak photon absorption and take the physical semiconductor branch $\eta >1$. ThensoThis is an estimate of the valence-electron background in a frequency window above the doped-carrier response and below the effective bound-electron resonance. One reflectance value alone does not determine both parts of a complex dielectric constant. Even for real ${ϵ}_r$, a reciprocal-index branch gives the same $R$; the ordinary background index greater than unity selects the branch used here.

Using the supplied conventional cubic lattice parameter, the participating valence-electron number density isUsing $m=m_e$ for the stipulated free-electron comparison givesAn angular frequency “in eV” means its quantum energy $\hslash \omega$, not $h\omega$. No doped-carrier effective mass should be inserted into this valence-electron count.

The low-frequency limit of the bound-electron contribution obeysConsequentlyThis effective resonance is much larger than the quoted $0.2\mathrm{eV}$ band gap. There is no contradiction: the single oscillator has been assigned the strength of all sixteen participating valence electrons per conventional cell, whereas the band gap is only the lowest interband excitation threshold. A real spectrum distributes optical oscillator strength over many transitions. Equating the oscillator resonance to the lowest threshold would misrepresent the assumed background response. Here “low frequency” means low relative to ${\omega }_0$; the static response of the doped conducting sample also contains its free carriers.

The additional mobile carriers in doped indium antimonide contribute a Drude frequency response, obtained by setting their restoring frequency to zero. At infrared frequencies well below the effective valence resonance, the sum is approximatelyAt the shorter wavelengths the carrier term is small and $R$ approaches the background value. As wavelength increases, the negative free-carrier contribution lowers the real permittivity towards unity. For weak damping, refractive-index matching to vacuum gives the Drude-Lorentz reflectivity minimum atThis minimum is near ${ϵ}_r^{\prime }=1$, not its zero. At the slightly lower screened plasma frequency ${\omega }_{pc}/\sqrt{{ϵ}_b}$, the real permittivity crosses zero; at longer wavelengths it becomes negative and the material becomes strongly reflective. Finite damping prevents a perfectly vanishing minimum and rounds the edge. At still lower frequency the large conducting response also drives $R$ towards unity.

For fixed carrier effective mass and background permittivity, ${\omega }_{pc}\propto \sqrt{n_c}$ and ${\lambda }_{\min }\propto n_c^{-1/2}$. The observed shift of the minimum towards shorter wavelength as doping increases is therefore the expected free-carrier trend. The figure is an original model illustration, not a digitization or quantitative fit of the supplied curves; the carrier effective mass, damping and their density dependence have not been specified.

Set $D=({\omega }_0^2-{\omega }^2{)}^2+{\gamma }^2{\omega }^2$. The real part and imaginary part of the complex permittivity areFor positive frequency the loss part is nonnegative. The real part starts at $1+{\omega }_p^2/{\omega }_0^2$, rises below resonance, falls steeply through the resonance region, and approaches one from below at high frequency. The imaginary part is a positive absorption peak near ${\omega }_0$, tending to zero on both sides.

For a nonmagnetic medium write its complex refractive index as $N=n_r+i\kappa$, with $N^2={ϵ}_r$ and optical extinction coefficient $\kappa$. In a transparent region with $\kappa \ll n_r$ and ${ϵ}_r^{\prime }>0$,The real part controls phase velocity and optical dispersion; the loss part controls wave absorption and the cycle-averaged dissipated power density $\omega {ϵ}_0{ϵ}_r^{\prime \prime }|E_0{|}^2/2$. Weak damping gives a narrow line but does not make wave absorption weak at its centre. The transparent-medium approximation applies away from the line.

For the Schrödinger equation with a real scalar potential and no vector potential, the probability current isTogether with the probability density $\rho =|\Psi {|}^2$, it satisfies the continuity equation ${\partial }_t\rho +\nabla \cdot \mathbf{j}=0$. Substituting ${\partial }_x\Psi =ik\Psi$ givesA complex wavefunction requires both its real and imaginary parts in the sketch. Choosing the irrelevant constant phase so that $A$ is real, they are $A\cos kx$ and $A\sin kx$, while the probability density is horizontal. It is the spatial phase gradient of a Schrodinger wavefunction ${\partial }_x\arg \Psi =k$ that determines the sign of the probability current. In particular, $e^{ikx}$ and $e^{-ikx}$ have the same real part but opposite probability currents, so the slope of the real part cannot determine the direction.

A nonzero plane wave on the whole real line is not square integrable. The displayed density is understood with box normalization, generalized normalization, or as a local description of a broad wave packet; it does not define a normalized probability distribution on the whole line.

Parametrize the positively oriented unit circle by $z=e^{i\theta }$. Then $e^{-1/z}=e^{-\cos \theta +i\sin \theta }$ and $dz=i{e}^{i\theta }d\theta$, soEquating the real part and imaginary part with $-2\pi i$ gives

Taking the difference of the two bank integrals at $n=2$ givesThe $I_j$ are real and convergent. Comparing real and imaginary parts proves $\boxed{I_0=\pi /2,I_1=0}$. Independently, $x\mapsto 1/x$ changes the sign of each odd logarithmic moment and preserves the measure, so every odd $I_j$ vanishes.