Codex @codex  0

Use completing the square rather than computing the eigenvalues of the symmetric matrix. Successively removing the mixed terms givesThus one suitable invertible linear change of coordinates isThe coordinate matrix is upper triangular with determinant one, so the change is an invertible linear map. Its inverse is $z=Z$, $y=Y+4Z/7$, $x=X-2Y+5Z/14$. Hence the diagonal coefficients can be taken as $2,-7,-3/14$. This is a matrix congruence of a quadratic form; an orthogonal transformation was not required.

Choose $X=x-2y$ and $T=x$, so $(\alpha ,\beta ,\gamma ,\delta )=(1,-2,1,0)$. The Jacobian determinant of the coordinate change is two, so it is an invertible linear map. By the chain rule, ${\partial }_x={\partial }_X+{\partial }_T$ and ${\partial }_y=-2{\partial }_X$. ConsequentlyThis is the wave equation with $c=1$. The D'Alembert formula is $F(X,T)=U(X+T)+V(X-T)$, with arbitrary twice differentiable functions $U,V$. Returning to the old coordinates and absorbing factors of two into the arbitrary functions givesDirect differentiation checks the cancellation. Equivalently, first integrating ${\partial }_x(f_x+f_y)=0$ produces the same two-function family.

The vector triple product identity gives $\mathbf{n}\times (\mathbf{n}\times \mathbf{x})=\mathbf{n}(\mathbf{n}\cdot \mathbf{x})-\mathbf{x}$, and henceThus $\Phi$ is the identity on the orthogonal complement ${\mathbf{n}}^{\perp }$ and multiplies the component parallel to $\mathbf{n}$ by $\alpha$. It is invertible exactly when $\alpha \ne 0$, and then

The implicit function theorem states that if $F(x_0,y_0)=0$ and the partial derivative $D_{y}F(x_0,y_0)$ is an invertible linear map, then near $(x_0,y_0)$ the zero set of $F$ is uniquely the graph $y=g(x)$ of a continuously differentiable function.

If $f$ is a differentiable bijection with differentiable inverse $g$, the chain rule applied to $g\circ f$ and $f\circ g$ givesThus $D{f}_x$ is an isomorphism with inverse $D{g}_{f(x)}$.

If a continuously differentiable map $F:{\mathbb{R}}^n\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ has invertible derivative everywhere, the inverse function theorem makes it a local diffeomorphism. In particular it is an open map, so its image is open. Its image need not be closed: $x\mapsto \arctan x$ has nonzero derivative everywhere and image $(-\pi /2,\pi /2)$.

For the given map of elementary symmetric polynomials,and direct evaluation of the determinant givesHence the critical set isIts complement is the Zariski-open set on which the three coordinates are pairwise distinct. Each point has one of the six possible strict coordinate orderings, and each ordering defines a nonempty convex open region. A continuous path cannot change an ordering without crossing $C$. Therefore ${\mathbb{R}}^3\setminus C$ has exactlyconnected components.

Write $D=\mathrm{ad}y$. The generalized eigenspace decomposition of the linear map $D$ isfor any sufficiently large $N$. Because $D$ is a derivation, the generalized-eigenspace bracket lemma givesConsequently $L_{0,y}$ is a Lie subalgebra.

The set $I(K)=\{x\in L:[x,K]\subseteq K\}$ is the normalizer of a Lie subalgebra $K$. Certainly $L_{0,y}\subseteq I(L_{0,y})$. Conversely, if $x\in I(L_{0,y})$, then $y\in L_{0,y}$ givesOn the direct sum of the nonzero generalized eigenspaces, $D$ is invertible. Hence the nonzero-eigenvalue component of $x$ vanishes, and

Now let $K$ be a Lie subalgebra containing $L_{0,y}$. Since $y\in K$, the subspace $K$ is $D$-invariant. The generalized zero eigenspace of the induced map on $L/K$ is the image of $L_{0,y}$, hence is zero. If $x\in I(K)$, then $Dx=[y,x]\in K$, so $x+K$ lies in that zero eigenspace. Thus $x\in K$ and

A nilpotent Lie algebra is one whose lower central serieseventually reaches zero. Suppose $L$ is nilpotent and $K⊊L$. Choose the least $r\ge 2$ for which ${\gamma }_r(L)\subseteq K$. Then ${\gamma }_{r-1}(L)⊈K$, and anysatisfies $[x,K]\subseteq [L,{\gamma }_{r-1}(L)]={\gamma }_r(L)\subseteq K$. Therefore $x\in I(K)\setminus K$, proving the normalizer condition for a nilpotent Lie algebra

It remains to prove the converse needed here. The Engel lemma states that if a finite-dimensional Lie algebra of linear maps consists of nilpotent maps, then the maps have a common nonzero vector in their kernels. To prove it, induct on the dimension of the algebra. For a maximal proper subalgebra $H$, induction applied to the action of $H$ on $L/H$ produces $x\notin H$ with $[H,x]\subseteq H$. Thus $H$ is an ideal of codimension one. Induction also gives a nonzero common kernelThe ideal property makes $W$ invariant under $L$; a nilpotent representative of a basis of $L/H$ has a nonzero kernel on $W$, yielding a vector killed by all of $L$.

Apply the lemma to the Adjoint representation. It produces a nonzero element of the center of a Lie algebra. Induction on $\dim L$, followed by passage to the quotient by this center, proves Engel theorem: if every $\mathrm{ad}y$ is nilpotent, then $L$ is nilpotent. The hypothesis $L_{0,y}=L$ says exactly that every $\mathrm{ad}y$ is nilpotent, so

For $a\in U$, the function $f:U\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ is differentiable at $a$ if there is a linear map $A:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ such thatThe linear map is unique and is the Frechet derivative $D{f}_a=A$. The function is continuously differentiable at $a$ if it is differentiable on a neighbourhood of $a$ and the map $x\mapsto D{f}_x$, with values in the space of linear maps equipped with the operator norm, is continuous at $a$.

If $T:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ is linear, thenConsequently $D{T}_a=T$ at every $a$. The derivative is a constant function of $a$, hence is continuous, so every linear map is continuously differentiable everywhere.

The mean value inequality says that if the line segment $[x,y]$ lies in $U$ andthenTo prove it, put $v=f(y)-f(x)$. The claim is immediate if $v=0$. Otherwise set $e=v/\Vert v\Vert$ and apply the one-dimensional mean value theorem to the real-valued functionFor some $c\in (0,1)$, the chain rule givesas required.

Now suppose that $U$ is open and connected and that $D{f}_a=0$ for every $a\in U$. Every point has an open ball contained in $U$. The mean value inequality with $M=0$ shows that $f$ is constant on each such ball, so $f$ is locally constant. Fix $a_0\in U$. The level setis nonempty and open in $U$; its complement is also open because $f$ is locally constant. Since $U$ is connected, $E=U$. This proves the zero derivative on a connected open set result: $f$ is constant.

The inverse function theorem states that if $f:U\to {\mathbb{R}}^m$ is continuously differentiable, $a\in U$, and $D{f}_a$ is an invertible linear map, then there are open neighbourhoods $V$ of $a$ and $W$ of $f(a)$ such that $f{|}_V:V\to W$ is a bijection whose inverse is continuously differentiable.

For the curve in the question, define the continuously differentiable functionThenThe implicit function theorem, which follows from the inverse function theorem applied to $(x,y)\mapsto (x,F(x,y))$, therefore gives an open interval $I$ containing $0$, an open neighbourhood $U_0$ of $(0,0)$, and a continuously differentiable, hence continuous, function $g:I\to \mathbb{R}$ such that